MDCAT Past Papers 2023-25 Table Of ContentsMDCAT Past Papers 2023-25Szabmu MDCAT 2023 to 2025KMU MDCAT 2023 to 2025UHS MDCAT 2023 to 2025UHS 2023UHS 2024UHS 2025Szabmu MDCAT 2023 to 2025CLick here for szabmu past papersKMU MDCAT 2023 to 2025CLick here for KMU past papersUHS MDCAT 2023 to 2025UHS 2023 Premium Content Unlock Full Access Get all MCQs & Detailed Explanations Report a question What's wrong with this question?You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. UHS 2023 1 / 1641) Which of the following type of organs are supposed to be functional in ancestral species rather than in present day species? Embryonic organs Analogous organs Vestigial organs Homologous organs Vestigial organs are anatomical remnants that were functional in the organism's ancestors but have largely lost their original function in present-day species (e.g., the human appendix). 2 / 1642) Which of the following is the main point of Darwinism? Over production Disuse of organ Variation Perceived unity of life Variation is a core tenet of Darwin's theory of Natural Selection, which posits that individuals with favorable variations are more likely to survive and reproduce. 3 / 1643) Descending aorta is bifurcated into two vessels which on further division from femoral artery that supply blood to high muscles of legs: Iliac vein Sciatic artery Temporal artery Iliac artery The descending abdominal aorta bifurcates into the left and right common iliac arteries, which further divide and eventually give rise to the femoral arteries supplying the legs. 4 / 1644) The final destination of lymph is: Lymph capillaries Subclavian vein Lymphoid organs Lymph node Lymph fluid is ultimately emptied back into the cardiovascular system via the right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct, which drain into the right and left subclavian veins, respectively. 5 / 1645) ABO blood group is controlled by more than two alleles in a population. This shows that ABO blood group is an example of: Pleiotropy Polygenic Inheritance Epistasis Multiple Alleles The ABO blood group system is a classic example of multiple alleles because it is controlled by three alleles: I^A, I^B, and i. 6 / 1646) According to Mendel Law of Segregation, the one individual out of four in F2 generation had phenotype that failed to express in P2 F1 P1 F2 In a typical Mendelian monohybrid cross, the recessive phenotype disappears in the heterozygous F1 generation but reappears in the F2 generation in a 1:4 ratio. 7 / 1647) Test cross is made to check the genotype of a trait. Which of the following crosses is a test cross? Unknown x Tt Unknown x tt Unknown x At Unknown x TT A test cross involves mating an individual of unknown genotype with a homozygous recessive individual (e.g., 'tt') to determine the unknown's genetic makeup. 8 / 1648) The cell membrane of muscle cell is: Sarcolemma Sarcoplasm Myofibrils Sarcomere The sarcolemma is the specialized plasma membrane that surrounds a striated muscle fiber cell. 9 / 1649) Irregular striations and involuntary control is related to? Smooth muscle cells Cardiac muscle cells Skeletal muscle cells Fibroelastic cartilage cell Cardiac muscle cells are striated (often irregularly due to branching and intercalated discs) and operate under involuntary control, unlike skeletal muscles which are voluntary. 10 / 16410) Cartilage is a type of which tissue? Epithelial tissues Muscular tissues Connective tissues Nervous tissues Cartilage is a specialized type of dense connective tissue comprising cells (chondrocytes) embedded in a firm, gel-like extracellular matrix. 11 / 16411) Production of Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland of female is controlled by: Hypothalamus Ovary Uterus Stimulated follicles The hypothalamus secretes Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which directly stimulates the anterior pituitary to release FSH and LH. 12 / 16412) The term menopause means: Stop of ova production Degeneration of ovaries Start of menstruation Start of ovulation Menopause is the natural biological process signifying the permanent cessation of the menstrual cycle and the stopping of ova (egg) production. 13 / 16413) To study sex linkages in Drosophila, Morgan mated white eyed males with wild type red eyed females. What will be the phenotype of offspring? White eyed females and red eyed males Red eyed females and white eyed males All red eyed males and females All white eyed females and males Since the white-eye trait is X-linked recessive, crossing a homozygous dominant red-eyed female (X^W X^W) with a white-eyed male (X^w Y) yields 100% red-eyed offspring (X^W X^w females and X^W Y males). 14 / 16414) Enteron is the characteristic feature of: Phylum Cnidaria Phylum Porifera Phylum Plathehelminthes Phylum Echinodermata The 'enteron' or coelenteron is the central gastrovascular cavity characteristic of Phylum Cnidaria (coelenterates). 15 / 16415) The body of which is called metamerically segmented? Nematodes Cnidarians Sponges Annelids Metamerism, or true segmentation where internal and external body parts are repeated in linear sequence, is a defining characteristic of Annelids (e.g., earthworms). 16 / 16416) Excretion in Planaria takes place by? Metanephridia Nephron Protonephridia Malpighian tubules Planaria (flatworms) utilize a network of dead-end tubules called protonephridia, capped by ciliated flame cells, for osmoregulation and excretion. 17 / 16417) Four chambered heart with right systemic arch only is present in? Mammals Amphibians Birds Reptiles Birds possess a four-chambered heart and retain only the right systemic arch, whereas mammals retain only the left systemic arch. 18 / 16418) The movement of water to lower solute concentration area through a semipermeable membrane is? Pressure potential Osmotic Potential Soil potential Solute potential Osmosis is driven by osmotic potential. (Note: standard definitions state water moves from low solute to high solute concentration; osmotic potential governs this thermodynamic movement). 19 / 16419) The ___ describes how water and dissolved chemicals are carried through the cell wall and intercellular gaps of plants. Cytoplasmic Theory Apoplast Theory Vacuolar Theory Symplast Theory The apoplast pathway involves the transport of water and solutes across the non-living parts of the plant, primarily the cell walls and intercellular spaces. 20 / 16420) Feeding by living in or on the other organism (host) belonging to different species is called? Saprophytic nutrition Parasitic nutrition Mineral nutrition Symbiotic nutrition Parasitic nutrition involves an organism deriving its nutrients directly from the living tissues of another species (the host), often causing harm. 21 / 16421) What of the following virus contains single stranded DNA? Adeno virus Herpes virus Pox virus Parvo virus Parvoviruses are unique among the given options as they are non-enveloped viruses containing a single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) genome. 22 / 16422) Which one of the following is X Linked Dominant disorder? Hypertrichosis Haemophilia Color blindness Hypophosphatemic rickets Hypophosphatemic rickets (vitamin D-resistant rickets) is a classic example of an X-linked dominant genetic disorder. 23 / 16423) Only those genes can assort independently whose loci are on: Homologous chromosomes Non-homologous chromosomes Same chromosomes Same chromatids Mendel's law of independent assortment strictly applies to genes located on different, non-homologous chromosomes (or genes very far apart on the same chromosome). 24 / 16424) Smooth muscles are found in all mentioned below except: Alveoli Trachea Bronchi Bronchioles Alveoli are composed of very thin simple squamous epithelium to facilitate gas exchange and do not contain smooth muscle tissue. 25 / 16425) The method of bringing oxygenated air into contact with a gas exchange surface is called? Gas transport Ventilation Photorespiration Respiration Ventilation (breathing) is the mechanical process of moving air in and out of the lungs to maintain steep diffusion gradients at the gas exchange surface. 26 / 16426) Number of layers of cell wall in Gram positive bacteria is: 1 2 3 4 Gram-positive bacteria typically possess a single, thick layer of peptidoglycan, whereas Gram-negative bacteria have a thinner peptidoglycan layer plus an outer membrane. 27 / 16427) Helicobacter pylori is an example of: Spiral Bacilli Pleomorphic Cocci While generally recognized for its spiral/helical shape, H. pylori exhibits pleomorphism, adapting into varying shapes like coccoid forms under environmental stress. 28 / 16428) Bacterial cell have ability to maintain its shape through Slime Cell wall Capsule Cell wall & slime The rigid peptidoglycan cell wall is the primary structure responsible for determining and maintaining the structural shape of a bacterium. 29 / 16429) Which of the following is an example of spiral shaped bacteria? Escherichia coli Diplococcus pneumoniae Hyphomicrobium Pseudomonas Based on the provided MDCAT exam key, Hyphomicrobium is selected, though traditionally it is a budding bacterium. Standard spiral bacteria include Spirillum or spirochetes. 30 / 16430) All the following are disinfectants to control bacterial growth except: Potassium Permanganate Tincture of Iodine Mercuric Chloride Hydrogen Peroxide Tincture of iodine is classified as an antiseptic because it is safe to use on living tissues, whereas disinfectants are specifically meant for inanimate surfaces. 31 / 16431) The function of hyaluronidase enzyme is: Inactivation of sperms after their failure to fertilize ovum Penetration of the sperm into the ovum Entrance of the sperm into the vagina Entrance of the sperm into the fallopian tube Hyaluronidase is an acrosomal enzyme that digests hyaluronic acid, allowing the sperm to penetrate the corona radiata surrounding the ovum during fertilization. 32 / 16432) In human females, what is the small, pear-shaped, muscular, distensible sac-like organ where gestation takes place? Uterus Stomach Fallopian tube Kidney The uterus is the dedicated reproductive organ designed to house, nourish, and protect the developing fetus throughout the gestation period. 33 / 16433) The labour pains to expel fetus are due to action of oxytocin on: Ovaries Myometrium Perimetrium Endometrium Oxytocin targets the myometrium (the thick, smooth muscle layer of the uterus), stimulating the powerful rhythmic contractions characteristic of labor. 34 / 16434) Virus is what type of agent? Non-protein Cellular agent Infectious agent Non-infectious agent Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, making them potent infectious agents capable of causing disease across all domains of life. 35 / 16435) The molecules used to control virus during infection of animal cells are: Interferon Histone Serum Antigen Interferons are signaling proteins released by host cells in response to viral presence, instructing neighboring cells to heighten their antiviral defenses. 36 / 16436) The provirus of HIV is structurally and chemically made up of? ssDNA dsRNA dsDNA ssRNA Although HIV's original genome is ssRNA, reverse transcriptase converts it into double-stranded DNA (dsDNA). This dsDNA form integrates into the host genome as a provirus. 37 / 16437) Which of the following is used in baking? Anaerobic respiration Internal respiration External respiration Aerobic respiration Baking relies on the anaerobic respiration (alcoholic fermentation) of yeast, which produces the carbon dioxide bubbles that cause dough to rise. 38 / 16438) Which is the major event in electron transport chain? Substitution ATP synthesis Decarboxylation Isomerisation The ultimate goal and primary event resulting from the electron transport chain is the chemiosmotic synthesis of large amounts of ATP via ATP synthase. 39 / 16439) Out of 36 ATPs, how many are produced in electron transport chain? 32 30 34 28 In an energy yield model totaling 36 ATPs, glycolysis yields 2 ATP, the Krebs cycle yields 2 ATP, and the remaining 32 ATP are generated via oxidative phosphorylation in the ETC. 40 / 16440) The major enzymes involved in transfer of phosphate group from ATP to Glucose is: Decarboxylase Dehydrogenase Isomerase Kinase Kinases (specifically hexokinase or glucokinase in this case) are the specific class of enzymes responsible for transferring phosphate groups from ATP to substrate molecules. 41 / 16441) --- forms almost three-fourth of the body by weight Protein Water Lipids Carbohydrates Water is the most abundant molecule in living organisms, typically comprising 60-70% (roughly three-fourths) of the total body weight of adult humans. 42 / 16442) Energy is --- by the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, such reactions are called catabolic reactions Produced Consumed Destroyed Released Catabolic reactions are exergonic; they break chemical bonds in complex molecules, resulting in the release of stored free energy. 43 / 16443) Biologically, --- plays key roles in maintaining the integrity of lipid bilayer membranes. Hydrophilic exclusion Heat of vaporization Hydrophobic exclusion Specific heat capacity Hydrophobic exclusion is the tendency of water to force nonpolar molecules (like lipid tails) together. This acts as the primary driving force holding cell membranes intact. 44 / 16444) The specific heat of vaporization of water plays an important role in the regulation of heat produced by Oxidation Redox None of above Reduction The oxidation of food molecules during cellular metabolism generates significant thermal energy. Water's high heat of vaporization helps dissipate this heat via sweating and transpiration. 45 / 16445) Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize? Hydrogen bonds Polar covalent bonds Nonpolar covalent bonds Covalent bonds Vaporization requires separating individual water molecules from one another, which means overcoming the intermolecular hydrogen bonds holding the liquid phase together. 46 / 16446) Which statement is true regarding both starch and cellulose? They are both polymers of glucose. They can both be digested by humans. They are both used for energy storage in plants. They are geometric isomers of each other. Both starch and cellulose are complex polysaccharides constructed exclusively from repeating glucose monomers (alpha-glucose in starch, beta-glucose in cellulose). 47 / 16447) Most of the monosaccharides form a ring structure when in solution. For example ribose will form a five cornered ring known as Glucopyranose Glyceradehyde Ribofuranose Acetaldehyde A five-membered cyclic sugar ring (four carbons and one oxygen) is termed a furanose. Therefore, ribose forms a ring specifically called ribofuranose. 48 / 16448) Cyclosis and amoeboid movements are due to: Cilia Microfilaments Microtubule Intermediate filaments Microfilaments (composed primarily of actin) are the dynamic cytoskeletal components largely responsible for amoeboid movement and cytoplasmic streaming (cyclosis). 49 / 16449) Proteins and lipids are modified into Glycoproteins & Glycolipids by which cell organelle? Ribosomes & chromosomes Golgi complex Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum The Golgi apparatus is the cell's 'post office.' It is the primary site where carbohydrates are added to proteins and lipids (glycosylation) before they are dispatched. 50 / 16450) Which structure of prokaryotic cell will play the role of mitochondrion? Mesosomes Nucleoid Cyst Spores Mesosomes are invaginations of the prokaryotic plasma membrane that contain respiratory enzymes, analogous to the cristae of eukaryotic mitochondria. 51 / 16451) Cell wall of prokaryotic cell is composed of: Carbohydrates Proteins & Lipids Carbohydrates & Proteins Proteins The bacterial cell wall is primarily composed of peptidoglycan (murein), a structural polymer consisting of carbohydrate backbones cross-linked by short peptide (protein) chains. 52 / 16452) Which of the following transition metals shows a 3d⁵ configuration in its ⁺² oxidation state? Zn⁺² Cu⁺² Mn⁺² Fe⁺² Manganese (Mn) has an atomic number of 25 with a ground-state configuration of [Ar] 4s² 3d⁵. Removing two 4s electrons gives the Mn⁺² ion a stable half-filled 3d⁵ configuration. 53 / 16453) Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between 1-Pentyne and 2-Pentyne? K₂Cr₂O₇ + H₂SO₄ 1% alkaline dilute KMnO₄ Br₂/CCl₄ AgNO₃ + NH₄OH Ammoniacal silver nitrate (Tollens' reagent) reacts with terminal alkynes like 1-pentyne to form a distinct precipitate, but does not react with internal alkynes like 2-pentyne. 54 / 16454) In S_N1 reactions, what is the correct order of reactivity of alkyl halides? Primary > secondary > tertiary Primary > tertiary > secondary Secondary > primary > tertiary Tertiary > secondary > primary S_N1 reactions proceed via a carbocation intermediate. Because tertiary carbocations are the most stable due to hyperconjugation, tertiary alkyl halides are the most reactive. 55 / 16455) What is the IUPAC name of diisopropyl ketone? 1,3-Dimethylpropan-2-one 2,4-Dimethylpentan-3-one 2,4-Dimethylpentan-2-one 1,3-Diisopropylpropan-2-one Diisopropyl ketone consists of two isopropyl groups attached to a carbonyl group. The longest carbon chain containing the ketone is 5 carbons long, with methyl groups on carbons 2 and 4, making it 2,4-dimethylpentan-3-one. 56 / 16456) The appearance of a silver mirror in Tollens' test indicates the presence of which of the following? An acid A ketone An alcohol An aldehyde Tollens' reagent is a mild oxidizing agent that reduces silver ions to metallic silver in the presence of an aldehyde, forming a characteristic silver mirror. 57 / 16457) Competitive inhibitors stop an enzyme from working by: Changing the shape of the enzyme Blocking the active site of the enzyme Merging with the substrate instead Combining with the product of the reaction Competitive inhibitors structurally resemble the normal substrate and compete with it for binding directly to the active site of the enzyme. 58 / 16458) If phenol is treated with 3 moles of conc. HNO₃ in the presence of H₂SO₄, what will be the product? p-nitrophenol o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol o-nitrophenol Picric acid Treatment of phenol with concentrated nitric and sulfuric acids leads to nitration at both ortho positions and the para position, producing 2,4,6-trinitrophenol, commonly known as picric acid. 59 / 16459) When the 6d orbital is filled, the entering electron goes into? 7d 7f 7s 7p According to the Aufbau principle and the (n+l) rule, after the 6d subshell (n+l = 6+2 = 8) is completely filled, the next electron enters the 7p subshell (n+l = 7+1 = 8). 60 / 16460) Which element has the ground state electronic configuration of 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶? Cl S Ar Na The given configuration has 18 electrons in total. Argon (Ar) is a noble gas with an atomic number of 18, matching this stable octet configuration. 61 / 16461) What is the proton (atomic number) of an element that has four unpaired electrons in its ground state? 6 22 26 14 Iron (Fe) has an atomic number of 26. Its electron configuration is [Ar] 4s² 3d⁶. According to Hund's rule, the 3d⁶ subshell will have 4 unpaired electrons. 62 / 16462) Which one of the following gases has the lowest density under room conditions? Fluorine Oxygen Neon Nitrogen Density of a gas is directly proportional to its molar mass. Neon (Ne) has a molar mass of ~20 g/mol, which is lower than N₂ (28), O₂ (32), and F₂ (38). 63 / 16463) The process of heat flow between hotter and colder gases remains continued until all the molecules have equal: Average rotational kinetic energy Average translational potential energy Average vibrational kinetic energy Average translational kinetic energy Temperature is a direct measure of the average translational kinetic energy of molecules. Heat flow stops when thermal equilibrium is reached, meaning their average translational kinetic energies are equal. 64 / 16464) What is the ultimate fate of a reversible reaction? Complete consumption of products Complete consumption of reactants A state when there is no net concentration change Completion of reaction A reversible reaction eventually reaches dynamic equilibrium, a state where the forward and reverse reaction rates are equal, resulting in no net change in the concentrations of reactants and products. 65 / 16465) In a reversible reaction, when a product is removed, the equilibrium shifts towards the: Reactant side No effect Both sides one by one Product side According to Le Chatelier's principle, removing a product decreases its concentration, prompting the system to shift towards the product side (forward direction) to replace it. 66 / 16466) The rate of reaction between two specific time intervals is called? Rate of reaction Average rate of reaction Instantaneous rate of reaction Initial rate The average rate of reaction is calculated by dividing the total change in concentration of a reactant or product by the specific time interval over which the change occurred. 67 / 16467) How will be the rate of reaction, if the slope of the curve is greater near the start of the reaction? Equilibrium Lesser Greater Constant On a concentration vs. time graph, the slope of the tangent line represents the rate of the reaction. A steeper (greater) slope indicates a higher reaction rate. 68 / 16468) What is the reason of energy changes in chemical reactions? Bond breakage Bond formation Bond formation and breakage Ionic bonds Chemical reactions involve breaking existing bonds (which requires energy) and forming new bonds (which releases energy). The net difference between these defines the overall energy change. 69 / 16469) What is the unit of heat capacity? J K⁻¹ kJ.mol kJ mol⁻¹ kJ/K Heat capacity is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1 Kelvin, typically expressed in Joules per Kelvin (J/K) or kilojoules per Kelvin (kJ/K). 70 / 16470) The addition reaction of 2-butene with HBr produces? 2,3-dibromobutane 2-bromobutane 1-bromobutane 1,3-dibromobutane 2-butene is a symmetrical alkene. Electrophilic addition of HBr across the double bond breaks the pi bond, adding an H and a Br to adjacent carbons, yielding 2-bromobutane. 71 / 16471) Under suitable conditions alkanes cannot undergo which of the following reactions? Substitution Hydrogenation Addition Combustion Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons meaning they have no double or triple bonds to break; therefore, they undergo substitution reactions but cannot undergo addition reactions. 72 / 16472) A compound of phosphorus oxide has 43.6% of Oxygen. Its empirical formula is? PO₂ P₅O₂ P₂O₅ P₂O₃ Phosphorus is 56.4% (100 - 43.6). Moles: P = 56.4 / 31 = 1.81, O = 43.6 / 16 = 2.72. The molar ratio is roughly 1.81 : 2.72, which simplifies to 2:3, giving P₂O₃. 73 / 16473) Which element is used as standard to determine atomic mass of an element? Cl P C H The Carbon-12 isotope is the internationally agreed-upon standard reference; 1 atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as exactly 1/12th the mass of a single Carbon-12 atom. 74 / 16474) The average weight of atoms of an element compared to the weight of one atom of ___ is called atomic weight. Carbon Hydrogen Helium Nitrogen Relative atomic mass (atomic weight) is calculated by comparing the average mass of an element's isotopes to the mass of the standard Carbon-12 atom. 75 / 16475) Which of the following electronic configuration is correct for ²⁴Cr? 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶, 4s², 3d⁴ 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶, 3d⁶ 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶, 4s¹, 3d⁵ 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶, 4f⁶ Chromium (Cr, atomic number 24) is an exception to the Aufbau principle. An electron from the 4s subshell is promoted to the 3d subshell to achieve a more stable, half-filled d-orbital (4s¹ 3d⁵). 76 / 16476) The same moles of H₂, N₂ and O₂ are present in 0.1 cc volume at STP. Which one has greatest number of molecules: H₂ Number of molecules are equal O₂ N₂ According to Avogadro's law, equal volumes of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules. 77 / 16477) Which is not a property of liquid? Diffusion Freezing point Osmotic pressure Melting Melting is the phase transition from a solid to a liquid. Once a substance is already in the liquid state, it cannot melt; it can only freeze or boil/evaporate. 78 / 16478) Which type of forces exist between iodine molecules? Dipole-dipole forces Non-polar forces Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces Dipole-induced dipole forces Iodine (I₂) is a non-polar molecule. The only intermolecular forces acting between non-polar molecules are London dispersion forces (instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces). 79 / 16479) In anisotropic crystals which property do not change with the change in direction of crystalline structure? Thermal conductance Electrical conductance Refractive index Molar mass Anisotropy means physical properties (like refractive index or conductivity) vary with direction. Molar mass is a fundamental chemical property, not a physical directional property, so it remains constant. 80 / 16480) In metals, why electric conductivity decreases with the increase of temperature? Because electron direction changes at high temperature Because electron movement decrease with the increase of temperature Because they pass heat current through collision of electrons Because metal ions oscillations hinder electron movement As temperature increases, the positive metal ions in the crystal lattice vibrate more vigorously. This increased oscillation scatters the flowing 'sea of electrons', increasing resistance. 81 / 16481) Why does fluorine have a lower electron affinity than expected (e.g., lower than chlorine)? Higher ionization energy Seven electrons in outermost shell Thick small electronic cloud Electronegativity Fluorine is extremely small, creating a dense, compact electron cloud. When an extra electron is added, it experiences significant repulsion from the tightly packed existing electrons. 82 / 16482) Which oxyacid of halogen is strong oxidizing agent? HClO HClO₂ HClO₃ HClO₄ Hypochlorous acid (HClO) is structurally less stable than the higher oxyacids (like HClO₄) and releases oxygen readily, making it an extremely potent and rapid oxidizing agent. 83 / 16483) The reaction of benzene with an alkyl halide in the presence of a Lewis acid is called: Sulphonation Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction Halogenation Friedel-Crafts acylation reaction Friedel-Crafts alkylation involves the substitution of an aromatic proton with an alkyl group, typically using an alkyl halide and a strong Lewis acid catalyst like AlCl₃. 84 / 16484) The increasing stability order of the following compounds (1) CH₃CH₂CH₂⁺ (2) (CH₃)₃C⁺ (3) CH₃CH₂CH⁺CH₃ is? 1 > 2 > 3 3 > 1 > 2 2 > 3 > 1 3 > 2 > 1 Carbocation stability increases with more alkyl groups due to hyperconjugation and inductive effects. The order of stability is tertiary (2) > secondary (3) > primary (1). Note: The option '2 > 3 > 1' reflects this decreasing scale perfectly. 85 / 16485) When 2-bromopropane reacts with Sodium ethoxide, the major product is/are......? Propene Propane Ethyl isopropyl ether All are formed Sodium ethoxide is a strong base. When it reacts with a secondary alkyl halide like 2-bromopropane, elimination (E2) dominates over substitution, yielding propene as the major product. 86 / 16486) Propanone can be prepared from propyne by: Treating propyne with iodine and NaOH Passing a mixture of propyne and steam over a catalyst, magnesium at 420°C Passing a mixture of propyne and ethanol over a catalyst, zinc chromate Boiling propyne with water in the presence of HgSO₄ and H₂SO₄ Hydration of alkynes using acidic water (H₂SO₄) and a mercuric salt catalyst (HgSO₄) adds water across the triple bond to form an enol, which tautomerizes into a ketone (propanone). 87 / 16487) If carboxylic acid and ketone groups (C=O) are present in a chain then final name will be given as: Both 1 and 2 oxo, oic acid one, oic acid None of these According to IUPAC nomenclature priorities, carboxylic acid is the highest priority group and takes the suffix '-oic acid'. The lower priority ketone is treated as a substituent and takes the prefix 'oxo-'. 88 / 16488) Acetic acid is weak acid than sulphuric acid because of which of the following reasons? It has -COOH group It has less degree of ionisation It decomposes on increasing temperature It has more inductive effect The strength of an acid is determined by how fully it dissociates in water. Acetic acid is weak because it only partially ionizes into H⁺ and acetate ions, unlike sulfuric acid which dissociates almost entirely. 89 / 16489) Mr. Khan mix acetic acid with thionyl chloride. Which product is obtained? CH₃COOCH₃ + SO₂ CH₃Cl + CH₃COCl CH₃Cl + SO₂ + HCl CH₃COCl + SO₂ + HCl Thionyl chloride (SOCl₂) reacts with carboxylic acids to replace the hydroxyl (-OH) group with chlorine, forming an acyl chloride (CH₃COCl), along with SO₂ and HCl gases. 90 / 16490) After the digestion & before absorption the product of the protein is: Only Amino Acid Only ammonia Only small polypeptide Amino Acid and small polypeptide Protein digestion breaks long polymer chains into an absorbable mixture consisting primarily of individual amino acids and small (di- and tri-) polypeptides. 91 / 16491) Dehydration of alcohol gives which of the following product in the presence of H₂SO₄ at 140°C? Diethyl ether Ethyl acetate Ethyl chloride Acetaldehyde When ethanol is heated with concentrated sulfuric acid at 140°C, an intermolecular dehydration occurs, combining two alcohol molecules to form diethyl ether. 92 / 16492) Complete oxidation of alcohol gives which of the following? Carboxylic acid Alkane Aldehyde Ketone A primary alcohol is oxidized first into an aldehyde, and then further completely oxidized into a carboxylic acid. 93 / 16493) One can estimate the direction in which equilibrium will shift with the help of: Law of mass action Hess's law Law of heat of formation Le Chatelier's principle Le Chatelier's principle states that if a dynamic equilibrium is disturbed by changing the conditions, the position of equilibrium shifts to counteract the change. 94 / 16494) The bond energy of hydrogen in H₂ molecule is: 431 kJ/mol 436 kJ/mol 346 kJ/mol 242 kJ/mol The standard bond dissociation enthalpy for breaking the single covalent H-H bond in a mole of hydrogen gas is approximately 436 kJ/mol. 95 / 16495) What are vinyl alcohol and acetaldehyde? Chain isomers Position isomers Tautomers Metamers Vinyl alcohol (an enol) and acetaldehyde (a ketone/aldehyde) exist in a state of rapid equilibrium via the migration of a hydrogen atom and a double bond, making them tautomers. 96 / 16496) Oxidation number of free magnesium is? ⁺¹ 0 ⁺² ⁺³ By definition, the oxidation state of any element in its free, uncombined elemental form is always zero. 97 / 16497) Select the metal which is extracted from bauxite? Mg Cu Al Ca Bauxite is a sedimentary rock that is the world's primary commercial ore of aluminum (Al). 98 / 16498) Which of the following has the highest atomic radius in its period? Halogens Alkali metals Chalcogens Alkaline earth metals Atomic radius decreases as you move from left to right across a period due to increasing effective nuclear charge. Therefore, Group 1 alkali metals (furthest left) have the largest radii. 99 / 16499) The electronic configurations of some elements are given below. Recognize the element that belongs to group IIIA: 1s² 2s² 2p⁴ 1s² 2s² 2p³ 1s² 2s² 2p² 1s² 2s² 2p¹ Elements in Group IIIA (Group 13) have 3 valence electrons in their outermost shell (ns² np¹). Option C ends in 2s² 2p¹, which corresponds to Boron. 100 / 164100) All alkali metals react with chlorine gas to form white metal chlorides salt. The metal chlorides salt formed is: Insoluble Soluble in water to give neutral solution of pH 7 Soluble in water to give alkaline solution of pH 14 Soluble in water to give acidic solution of pH 1 Alkali metal chlorides (like NaCl or KCl) are salts formed from a strong base and a strong acid. They are highly soluble in water and undergo no hydrolysis, resulting in a neutral pH of 7. 101 / 164101) Which one of them is amphoteric in nature? Calcium oxide Potassium oxide Beryllium oxide Lithium oxide Beryllium is diagonally related to Aluminum. Like Al₂O₃, Beryllium oxide (BeO) is amphoteric, meaning it can react chemically as either an acid or a base. 102 / 164102) Which of the following is correct electronic configuration of iron (II) ion (atomic no. of Fe is = 26)? [Ar] 4s², 3d⁶ [Ar] 4s⁰, 3d⁶ [Ar] 4s², 3d⁴ [Ar] 4s², 3d⁵ A neutral Iron atom is [Ar] 4s² 3d⁶. When ionizing to form Fe⁺², electrons are removed from the outermost shell first, which is the 4s shell, leaving [Ar] 4s⁰ 3d⁶. 103 / 164103) The following formula can be used to determine the resistance of a length of conductor: R = ρL/A. In the formula, the symbol ρ (rho) stands for the: Cross-sectional area of the conductor in m² Resistivity of the material in units of ohm-meters Resistance of the conductor in units of ohms per meter Product of the length of the conductor in meters In the resistance formula, the Greek letter ρ represents the electrical resistivity, which is an intrinsic property of the material indicating how strongly it resists electric current. 104 / 164104) The resistance of the wire varies inversely as: Resistivity Area of cross section Length Temperature According to the relation R = ρ(L/A), resistance (R) is directly proportional to length (L) and inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area (A). 105 / 164105) A capacitor of capacitance 'C' has a charge 'Q' and stored energy is 'W'. If the charge is increased to '2Q', the stored energy will be: 4W 2W W / 4 W / 2 The energy stored in a capacitor is given by W = Q² / 2C. If the charge Q is doubled to 2Q, the new energy becomes (2Q)² / 2C = 4Q² / 2C, which is 4 times the original energy (4W). Note: The original key listed 'A' (2W) but standard physics dictates 4W. 106 / 164106) To store the electric charge the ultra-capacitors use ________ effect. Triple layer Dielectric Double layer Single layer Ultracapacitors, also known as supercapacitors, store energy using the electrochemical double-layer capacitance (EDLC) effect rather than a traditional solid dielectric. 107 / 164107) What is the potential difference between two points in an electric field if it takes 600 J of energy to move a charge of 2 C between these two points? 1200 V 300 V 800 V 3000 V Potential difference (V) is defined as work done (W) per unit charge (q). Thus, V = W / q = 600 J / 2 C = 300 V. 108 / 164108) A charged particle moves in a uniform electric field between two oppositely charged parallel metal plates. To calculate the force acting on the particle due to the electric field, which quantity is not required? Particle speed Distance between plates (if voltage is known) Electric field strength Particle charge The electric force on a particle is given by F = qE. It depends only on the charge of the particle (q) and the strength of the electric field (E), independent of the particle's speed. 109 / 164109) A distant star is receding from the Earth with a speed of 1.40 × 10⁷ m/s. It emits light of frequency 4.57 × 10¹⁴ Hz. The speed of light is 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s. What will be the frequency of this light when detected on Earth? 4.79 × 10¹⁴ Hz 4.37 × 10¹⁴ Hz 4.57 × 10¹⁴ Hz 2.04 × 10¹³ Hz Using the Doppler effect approximation for light receding (f' ≈ f(1 - v/c)), the shift is v/c = (1.4 × 10⁷) / (3.0 × 10⁸) ≈ 0.0467. The detected frequency is 4.57 × 10¹⁴ × (1 - 0.0467) ≈ 4.36 × 10¹⁴ Hz. 110 / 164110) The speed of sound in an ideal gas depends upon: Frequency and fog Temperature and amplitude Temperature and density Density and amplitude The speed of sound in a gas is primarily determined by the thermodynamic properties of the gas, specifically its absolute temperature and density (or molar mass). 111 / 164111) If transverse waves are passing through a medium, then the particles of the medium: Remain stationary Oscillate perpendicular to the wave direction Move away Move toward By definition, in a transverse wave, the particles of the transmitting medium oscillate up and down, perpendicular to the overall direction of wave propagation. 112 / 164112) When a wave goes from one medium to another, there is no change in the: Frequency Wavelength Amplitude Velocity Frequency is determined by the source generating the wave and remains constant across phase boundaries. Wavelength and velocity, however, change depending on the medium's refractive index. 113 / 164113) An ideal gas has molar specific heat Cp at constant pressure. When the temperature of n moles is increased by ΔT at constant volume, the heat absorbed is: n (Cp - R) ΔT n Cp ΔT n (Cp + R) ΔT n (2Cp + R) ΔT The heat absorbed at constant volume is calculated using the molar specific heat at constant volume (Cv). Since Cp - Cv = R, we have Cv = (Cp - R). Thus, the heat absorbed is n(Cp - R)ΔT. 114 / 164114) The ohmmeter of a portable multimeter contains its own: Wet cell Voltmeter Ammeter Internal battery An ohmmeter works by passing a small, known current through the component being tested and measuring the resulting voltage drop. This requires its own internal power source, a battery. 115 / 164115) A wire of uniform area of cross-section 'A', length 'L', and resistance 'R' is cut into two equal parts. What will happen to the resistivity of each part? It will be halved It will be doubled It will be one fourth It will remain the same Resistivity is an inherent physical property of the material itself. Cutting the wire changes its physical dimensions (length and resistance) but does not alter the material's resistivity. 116 / 164116) If a 0.5 T magnetic field is applied over an area of 2 m² which lies such that its normal is at an angle of 60 degrees with the field, then the resulting flux will be: 0.5 Wb 0.25 T 0.5 T 0.25 Wb Magnetic flux Φ = B × A × cos(θ). Here, Φ = 0.5 T × 2 m² × cos(60°). Since cos(60°) = 0.5, the flux is 0.5 × 2 × 0.5 = 0.5 Webers (Wb). 117 / 164117) The magnitude of magnetic force will be maximum on a current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field if the conductor is placed: At 45 degree in magnetic field Parallel to magnetic field Antiparallel in magnetic field Perpendicular to magnetic field The magnetic force on a current-carrying conductor is F = ILB sin(θ). The force is maximum when sin(θ) is 1, which occurs when the angle θ is 90 degrees (perpendicular). 118 / 164118) In principle, the transformer consists of two coils of copper, electrically insulated from each other, wound on the same: Steel core Gold core Iron core Copper core Transformers use a soft iron core because it is highly permeable and efficiently channels the magnetic flux from the primary coil to the secondary coil with minimal energy loss. 119 / 164119) In the Compton effect, the incident photon when compared to the scattered photon is of: Equal energy Greater energy and momentum Greater energy Greater frequency During Compton scattering, the incident photon transfers a portion of its energy and momentum to an electron. Therefore, the incident photon has greater energy, frequency, and momentum than the scattered photon. 120 / 164120) Which of the following is the longest wavelength of radiation for the Paschen series? 0.00000187 m 0.00000187/m 187000000 m 187000000/m The Paschen series drops to n=3. The longest wavelength corresponds to the lowest energy transition, from n=4 to n=3. Using the Rydberg formula, λ ≈ 1875 nm, or 0.00000187 m. 121 / 164121) Which of the following is the correct definition of variable velocity? Equal distances are covered in unequal intervals of time Unequal displacements are made in equal intervals of time Unequal distances are covered in equal intervals of time Equal displacements are made in equal intervals of time Velocity is a vector quantity involving displacement and time. Variable velocity means the object is undergoing unequal displacements (changing speed or direction) in equal time intervals. 122 / 164122) According to the maximum power transfer theorem, which of the following is the max power transferred to the load? E² / 3r E² / 2r E² / 5r E² / 4r Maximum power is transferred when the load resistance (R) equals the internal resistance (r). Substituting R=r into P = I²R yields P = (E / 2r)² × r = E² / 4r. 123 / 164123) The quantity Δφ / Δt has the same units as that of? Current Emf Magnetic induction Charge According to Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction, the induced Emf (E) is equal to the negative rate of change of magnetic flux (-Δφ / Δt). Thus, both share the unit of Volts. 124 / 164124) Working principal of magnetic levitation train is according to? Max planks law Faraday law Ohm law Lenz law Maglev levitation relies on Lenz's Law. As the train moves, varying magnetic fields induce currents in the track coils, which in turn create opposing magnetic fields that repel and levitate the train. 125 / 164125) The expression for the emf produced by an A.C. generator is? ILB Cosθ NωAB Sinθ NωAB Cosθ NωAB The induced emf in an AC generator is given by the derivative of the flux. Emf = NωAB sin(ωt), where θ = ωt represents the angle of rotation. 126 / 164126) For the positive half cycle i.e., 0 → T/2, the ideal diode D in a half-wave rectifier: Behaves as open Is forward biased Shows maximum resistance Is reverse biased During the positive half-cycle of an AC input, the anode of the diode is positive relative to the cathode, causing it to become forward biased and conduct current. 127 / 164127) The process of ejection of loosely bound electrons from a certain photo sensitive surface by absorption of photon is called: Black body radiation Pair production Compton effect Photoelectric effect The photoelectric effect is the phenomenon where a material emits electrons (photoelectrons) when illuminated by electromagnetic radiation (photons) of sufficient frequency. 128 / 164128) In Compton effect, a photon of a certain wavelength collides with a stationary electron. The wavelength of the emitted photon is: Longer Shorter Infinite Same The photon transfers energy to the electron during the collision. Since energy is inversely proportional to wavelength (E = hc/λ), a loss in energy results in a longer wavelength for the scattered photon. 129 / 164129) The Balmer series of hydrogen is important because it: Is the only one for which the quantum theory can be used Is in the visible region Involves the lowest possible quantum number n Is the only series that occurs for hydrogen The Balmer series is historically and practically significant because its spectral lines (representing electron transitions down to n=2) fall within the visible light spectrum. 130 / 164130) The SI unit of equivalent dose is: Sievert Rad Mass Gray The Sievert (Sv) is the International System of Units (SI) derived unit for equivalent radiation dose, adjusting the absorbed dose (Gray) for the biological effectiveness of the radiation type. 131 / 164131) The decay rate of radioactive substance is: Constant with time Decreases exponentially with time Varies inversely with time Decreases linearly with time Radioactive decay is a first-order kinetic process. The number of undecayed nuclei, and thus the rate of decay (activity), decreases exponentially over time (N = N₀e⁻λᵗ). 132 / 164132) The relation between gray and rad is given as: 1 Gy = ________ rad 100 0.001 0.01 10 One Gray (Gy) is defined as 1 Joule of radiation energy absorbed per kilogram of matter. 1 Gy is strictly equal to 100 rad (radiation absorbed dose). 133 / 164133) The velocity-time plot for a moving particle shows a straight line. This means: The particle has never turned around The particle has zero displacement The particle has a constant acceleration The data is insufficient The slope of a velocity-time graph represents acceleration. A straight line indicates a constant slope, and therefore, the particle is moving with constant acceleration. 134 / 164134) A man is in a car that is moving with the velocity of 36 km/hr. His speed with respect to the car is: 10 m/s Zero 36 m/s Infinite Speed is relative to the frame of reference. Since the man is seated inside the car, his position relative to the car itself is not changing; hence, his relative speed is zero. 135 / 164135) On which car is there a resultant (net) force? Car moving uphill at a constant velocity Car moving on a straight horizontal road at constant speed Car that is stationary Car moving at constant speed around a bend Velocity is a vector comprising both speed and direction. Moving around a bend requires a change in direction, meaning velocity changes, which implies an acceleration caused by a net centripetal force. 136 / 164136) If two equal masses are in motion with the same individual speeds, we can conclude that: Their momentums are same Their accelerations are identical Their kinetic energies are different Their momentums can be different from each other Momentum (p = mv) is a vector quantity. Even if their masses and speeds (magnitudes) are identical, if they are traveling in different directions, their momentum vectors will be different. 137 / 164137) The work done by a variable force can be found by dividing the: Force into small intervals Time into small intervals Mass into small intervals The displacement into small intervals To calculate work done by a variable force, you divide the total displacement path into infinitesimally small intervals (dx) where the force is approximately constant, then integrate (W = ∫F dx). 138 / 164138) The circular line has a fix distance from? Any point A point from outside A fix point A point on a circle By definition, a circle (the circular line) is the locus of all points in a plane that are at a given, fixed distance (the radius) from a single fixed point (the center). 139 / 164139) If a particle is moving with uniform circular motion, then: Velocity and acceleration are parallel Zero acceleration Velocity and acceleration are perpendicular Velocity and acceleration are antiparallel In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector is tangential to the circular path, while the centripetal acceleration vector is directed radially inward toward the center, forming a 90-degree angle. 140 / 164140) One degree is equal to: π / 270 radians π / 180 radians π / 90 radians π / 360 radians A full circle is 360 degrees, which is equivalent to 2π radians. Therefore, 1 degree equals 2π / 360, which simplifies to π / 180 radians. 141 / 164141) An observer standing near the sea shore observes 54 waves per minute. If the wavelength of the water wave is 10 m, then the velocity of the water wave is: 540 m/s 5.4 m/s 9 m/s None of the above First, calculate frequency: 54 waves / 60 seconds = 0.9 Hz. Then use the wave equation v = fλ: Velocity = 0.9 Hz × 10 m = 9 m/s. 142 / 164142) If the length of a second pendulum becomes four times, then its time period will become: Two times Half One fourth Four times The time period of a pendulum is given by T = 2π√(L/g). If length L is increased by a factor of 4, the new period is proportional to √4, meaning the time period doubles. 143 / 164143) Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct: He weighed himself two maunds. He weighed itself two maunds. He weighed themselves two maunds. He weighed two maunds. The verb 'weigh' in this context acts as a linking verb expressing measurement. It does not require a reflexive pronoun, making 'He weighed two maunds' the correct and concise phrasing. 144 / 164144) Choose the correct option. We felt as if the ground was _______ beneath our feet. sinking bursting slipping digging The standard English idiom is 'the ground slipping beneath one's feet,' which metaphorically means experiencing a sudden loss of confidence, stability, or support. 145 / 164145) A few years ago, it _______ that human beings do not belong to this earth. were found found was found had found The sentence requires the past tense passive voice. 'It was found' correctly expresses that a discovery was made by someone in the past. 146 / 164146) A shoal of fish _______ killed by the fishermen. have has been has had The phrase 'A shoal' is a collective noun acting as a single unit (singular subject). Therefore, it requires the singular passive verb phrase 'has been'. 147 / 164147) At last the fly was _______. The most appropriate word to be filled in is: Entertained by the spider Invited by the spider Trapped by the spider Spared by the spider. Contextually, spiders catch their prey using webs. Therefore, 'Trapped by the spider' is the only logical and naturally occurring outcome for the fly. 148 / 164148) Choose the similar meaning of the bracketed word. (Providentially), his mind was not injured. Slowly Steadily Luckily Really The word 'providentially' means happening by divine foresight or a remarkably good fortune, making 'Luckily' the closest synonym. 149 / 164149) A carpenter carves _______ on cab doors. Choose the right word to fill in the blank. Ornate Arabesque Floral Decked An 'arabesque' is a specific ornamental design consisting of intertwined flowing lines, originally found in Arabic or Moorish decoration, which is frequently carved into wood by carpenters. 150 / 164150) _______ methods don't work. Choose the correct option: This That The These The word 'methods' is a plural noun, so it must be preceded by a plural demonstrative adjective. 'These' is the correct choice. 151 / 164151) We just _______ a game of tennis. have has have had had When using 'just' to indicate a recently completed action, standard usage often pairs it with the simple past tense ('had'), particularly in casual or American English contexts. 152 / 164152) The pen is expensive; still I _______ it. buyed bought have bought will buy The conjunction 'still' indicates a persistent intention despite a negative condition (it being expensive). 'Will buy' correctly expresses this future intent. 153 / 164153) Punctuate the given sentence correctly. 'My father is Chairman of the Committee on Internal Relations he also heads the Discipline Committee.' My father is Chairman of the Committee on Internal Relations, but he also heads the Discipline Committee. My father is Chairman of the Committee on Internal Relations. He also heads the Discipline Committee. My father is Chairman of the Committee on Internal Relations he also heads the Discipline Committee. My father is Chairman of the Committee on Internal Relations: he also heads the Discipline Committee. The original text contains a run-on sentence with two independent clauses. Option A correctly fixes this by separating them into two distinct sentences with a period. 154 / 164154) Which of the following sentences is correct? I want to live where: my parents live. I want to live where my parents live. I want to live where, my parents live. I want to live near my parents live. The relative adverb 'where' correctly connects the two clauses to indicate location, without the need for unnecessary commas or colons. 155 / 164155) Right after the Civil War, many distraught soldiers made their way West to find fame and fortune... One young man, Will Goodlad, made his fortune in the hills of Colorado... In 1875, he declared bankruptcy and returned to the land of his birth- the Piedmont of South Carolina. For which side did Will fight during the War? West North East South The passage states that Will Goodlad returned to the land of his birth, which is identified as South Carolina. Because South Carolina was part of the Confederacy, it is inferred he fought for the South. 156 / 164156) _______ so many people been out of work as today. Which part is the most appropriate to be filled in the blank? More than ever before Formerly, there never were Never before have In the past, there never have The sentence features subject-verb inversion triggered by a negative adverbial phrase. 'Never before have' correctly structures this ('Never before have so many people...'). 157 / 164157) Spot the error out of the bracketed words. We try to speak (with) (one another) (but) (convey) nothing. but one another with convey In standard English usage, the more appropriate preposition to use with 'speak' in this context is 'to' (i.e., 'speak to one another'). Therefore, 'with' is considered the grammatical error here. 158 / 164158) In winter, the days and nights is cold. Choose the part of the sentence that carries error: In winter Is cold And nights The days The subject of the sentence is a compound plural ('the days and nights'). Therefore, the verb must also be plural ('are cold', not 'is cold'). 159 / 164159) All children are silly people. Some silly people are rich people. All rich people are big shots. Which of the following conclusions are NECESSARILY TRUE? (I. Some silly people are children. II. Some rich people are children. III. Some silly people are big shots.) II and III I and II I and III II Since all children are silly people, the inverse holds that some silly people are children (I). Since some silly people are rich, and all rich people are big shots, then some silly people must be big shots (III). There is no guaranteed link between rich people and children (II). 160 / 164160) X, Y and Z are three whole numbers less than 31 but greater than 23. X is a prime number. Y is the largest odd number smaller than 35. Z is the smallest even number? X is 31, Y is 29 and Z is 24. X is 27, Y is 31 and Z is 26. X is 29, Y is 29 and Z is 24. X is 23, Y is 29 and Z is 24. The permissible whole numbers are 24 through 30. Within this restricted set, the only prime number is 29 (X = 29). The largest odd number available in this specific pool is 29 (Y = 29). The smallest even number in the pool is 24 (Z = 24). 161 / 164161) Observe the pattern and select the next term in the sequence: SSSSS, SSRSS, SRQRS, RQPQR RQPOPQR QPOPQ RQOQR QRORQ At each step, the sequence decrements the letters alphabetically (S -> R -> Q -> P -> O), with the affected area expanding outwards from the center. By the 4th term (RQPQR), all five letters are actively being decremented. Decrementing all five letters of 'RQPQR' by one alphabetical position yields 'QPOPQ'. 162 / 164162) Read the following statement, assuming everything in it to be true. Then decide which of the given suggested courses of action logically follow and are worth pursuing. Statement: Your toddler drops and breaks a glass by genuine accident. Courses of Action: I. Yell at them to be more careful with things made out of glass. II. Punish them to make sure they remember to be extra careful next time. II I Both I and II Neither I nor II The statement explicitly highlights that the action was a 'genuine accident' committed by a 'toddler'. Logically and psychologically, yelling or punishing a very young child for an unintentional mistake is neither effective nor a constructive course of action. 163 / 164163) Read the following statements and identify the best cause and effect relation. I. State P started providing multiple rehabilitation schemes, like free education, job search help and help groups for addicts, etc. over the past year. II. Crimes rates for state P have steadily decreased over the past year. I and II are both effects of independent causes I is the cause and II is its effect I and II are effects of some common cause II is the cause and I is its effect The implementation of social support systems, rehabilitation schemes, and educational/job assistance (I) serves as a proactive, constructive intervention. This naturally acts as the root cause that leads to the positive outcome of reduced crime rates (II). 164 / 164164) Read the passage and the following statements below. Then choose the correct option, basing your answer only on the information provided. 'Pakistan is rich in wildlife and culture. It is home to many sorts of wildlife, from the Ibex to the Indus River Dolphin; and people from most countries in the world have made their home here.' STATEMENTS:I. Pakistan is a rich country.II. People from all nationalities of the world live in Pakistan.III. Pakistan is home to at least one dolphin species. Only II and III are correct Only I and III are correct Only I and II are correct Only III is correct The text explicitly states the presence of the 'Indus River Dolphin', fully supporting statement III. It states the country is 'rich in wildlife and culture', not necessarily economically rich (I). It also mentions people from 'most countries', not 'all nationalities' (II). Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz UHS 2024 Premium Content Unlock Full Access Get all MCQs & Detailed Explanations Report a question What's wrong with this question?You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. UHS 2024 1 / 2001) Example of viruses having a polyhedral capsid that is with 252 capsomeres is: Bacteriophage Influenza virus Tobacco Mosaic Virus Adenovirus Adenoviruses have a characteristic icosahedral (polyhedral) capsid composed of exactly 252 capsomeres. 2 / 2002) The complete, mature & infectious particle of virus is known as: Prion Capsomere Genome Envelope This question was deleted in the official key because the correct term, 'Virion', is missing from the options. 3 / 2003) The causative organism of measles is: Paramyxovirus Picornovirus Paporivirus Poxivirus Measles is caused by the Morbillivirus, which is a genus of viruses within the Paramyxovirus family. 4 / 2004) In the life cycle of a bacteriophage, the lysozymes are required in which of the following steps of infection process? Penetration Adsorption Replication Genome injection Bacteriophages use lysozyme enzymes to break down a portion of the bacterial cell wall during the penetration phase. 5 / 2005) ________ is transmitted through infected blood and hypodermic syringes. Morbilli Virus (Measles) HIV Vibrio Cholerae (Cholera) Influenza Virus HIV is a blood-borne virus commonly transmitted through the sharing of infected needles and syringes. 6 / 2006) In Calvin cycle CO2 reacts with RuBP to produce: 6-Carbon unstable intermediate G3P 3-PGA 1,3 bisphosphglycerate The enzyme RuBisCO catalyzes the reaction between CO2 and RuBP to form a highly unstable 6-carbon intermediate. 7 / 2007) Which option is correct about a chlorophyll molecule? Methyl group on second pyrrole ring Aldehyde group on second pyrrole ring Chemical formula C55H70O6N4Mg Porphyrin ring with nitrogen in centre Chlorophyll b has the chemical formula C55H70O6N4Mg, making this the correct statement among the choices. 8 / 2008) In the journey of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I plastocyanine is reduced by: Plastoquinone Primary electron acceptor of PSI Cytochrome complex P700 The cytochrome complex transfers electrons to plastocyanin, thereby reducing it before it passes electrons to PSI. 9 / 2009) Enzyme NADP reductase is responsible for: Oxidizing NADP+ Reducing P700 Reducing Ferredoxin Reducing NADP+ NADP+ reductase catalyzes the final step of the linear electron flow, reducing NADP+ to NADPH. 10 / 20010) The PS II during light reactions receives electrons from splitting: Plastoquinone Plastocyanin Water Ferridoxin Photosystem II replenishes its lost electrons through the photolysis (splitting) of water molecules. 11 / 20011) Mono-saccharides have a general formula represented by: Cn(H2O)n C(H2O)n C2(H2O)n Cn(H2O) The general formula for monosaccharides is (CH2O)n or Cn(H2O)n. 12 / 20012) What is the percentage of H2O in bone cells? 99% 60% 20% 70% Bone cells (osteocytes) and bone tissue contain a much lower water percentage, around 20%, compared to other body tissues. 13 / 20013) When glycerol reacts with fatty acid, which type of chemical bond will form? Ether Linkage Hydrogen Bond Ester Bond Ionic Bond Fatty acids bind to glycerol through a condensation reaction that forms ester bonds, creating glycerides. 14 / 20014) Polysaccharides in plants are synthesized by the process of: Glycolysis Condensation Oxidation Hydrolysis Polysaccharides are formed by joining monosaccharides through condensation (dehydration synthesis) reactions. 15 / 20015) Which of the following process is involved in breakdown of protein into Amino acids? Glycolysis Fixation Condensation Hydrolysis The breakdown of proteins involves adding water molecules to break peptide bonds, a process called hydrolysis. 16 / 20016) The hydrophilic end of phospholipid molecule is polar because of the presence of: Phosphate group Fatty Acid Glycerol Amine group The phosphate group carries a negative charge, making the 'head' of the phospholipid polar and hydrophilic. 17 / 20017) Which monosaccharide will from a gluco pyranose ring in solution? Ribose Fructose Deoxyribose Glucose In aqueous solutions, glucose predominantly forms a 6-membered ring structure known as glucopyranose. 18 / 20018) Chloroplast are membrane bound bodies containing: Pigment Cristae Cisternae Enzymes While this question was deleted in the official key (likely because it contains both enzymes and pigments), pigments (like chlorophyll) are their most defining feature for photosynthesis. 19 / 20019) Which of the following is the function of Golgi Complex? Processing of cell secretions Autophagy Intracellular digestion Autolysis The Golgi apparatus is primarily responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging cell secretions (proteins and lipids). 20 / 20020) The nucleus takes dyes due to the presence of: Lipid Thylakoids Metal ions Chromatin Chromatin, which consists of DNA and basic proteins, heavily absorbs basic dyes, making the nucleus visible under a microscope. 21 / 20021) The organelles only found at seeding stage in oil seed plants are: Vacuoles Glyoxiosomes Peroxiosomes Microbodies Glyoxysomes are specialized peroxisomes found in plants (particularly in germinating seeds) that convert stored lipids into carbohydrates. 22 / 20022) Posterior lobe of pituitary produce: Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) Adreno Corticufrotric Hormone (ACH) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) The posterior pituitary stores and releases ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin. 23 / 20023) In human myelinated fibers nerve impulse travels at _____ meters per second. 190-210 130-150 160-180 100-120 In thick myelinated human nerve fibers, saltatory conduction allows impulses to travel rapidly, typically between 100-120 m/s. 24 / 20024) Nissl's granules are groups of: Chromosome Lysosomes Mesosomes Ribosomes Nissl bodies (or granules) are composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum and free ribosomes, site of protein synthesis in neurons. 25 / 20025) During non-conducting state, the neuron membrane is permeable to efflux of: CI- Ca+ Na+ K+ During resting potential (non-conducting state), potassium 'leak' channels allow a slow efflux of K+ ions. 26 / 20026) Which of the following neurotransmitters is lying outside the central nervous system? Acetylcholine Gamma aminobutyric acid Endorphins Dopamine Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter of the peripheral nervous system, particularly at neuromuscular junctions. 27 / 20027) Depolarization during conduction of nerve impulse is due to: Inward movement of Na+ Outward movement of K+ Outward movement of Na+ Inward movement of K+ An action potential begins when voltage-gated sodium channels open, causing a rapid inward movement (influx) of Na+. 28 / 20028) Which of the following is NOT a feature of Autonomic Nervous System? Regulate response of visceral organs Regulate response of glands Regulate response of smooth muscles Regulate response of skeletal muscles Skeletal muscles are controlled voluntarily by the somatic nervous system, not the autonomic nervous system. 29 / 20029) Taste receptor is an example of: Photo receptors Mechano receptors Chemo receptors Nociceptors Taste buds detect specific chemical compounds in food, making them chemoreceptors. 30 / 20030) Which of the following belongs to chordates? Spider Earthworm Trout Fish Star Fish Trout is a fish with a backbone, placing it within the phylum Chordata. 31 / 20031) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding rate of enzymatic action? All enzymes work at their maximum rate at optimum temperature Increase in enzyme concentration increases the rate All enzymes work at their maximum rate at optimum pH Increase in enzyme concentration reduces the rate Increasing enzyme concentration generally increases the reaction rate as long as substrate is available; it does not reduce it. 32 / 20032) Induced fit model of enzyme activity suggests that an enzyme: Can catalyze related reaction Cannot modify its active sites Usually belongs to non-regulatory enzyme Can bind to a single substrate The induced fit model posits that the active site is somewhat flexible, allowing it to adjust and potentially catalyze reactions for structurally related substrates. 33 / 20033) Chromosomal abnormality in Turner syndrome is represented by? XO XXY XYY XXX Turner syndrome affects females who have only one complete X chromosome (45, X0). 34 / 20034) The change in frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is known as: Non Random mating Mutation Genetic Drift Speciation Genetic drift refers to random fluctuations in allele frequencies, typically having a more pronounced effect in smaller populations. 35 / 20035) Identify the correct pair of vestigial organs: Ear Muscles & Vermiform appendix Ear Muscles & Liver Heart & Liver Vermiform appendix & Heart Both the extrinsic ear muscles and the vermiform appendix are evolutionary remnants (vestigial organs) in humans. 36 / 20036) Which of the following increases variation within a gene pool? Crossing over Gene mutation Random fusion of gametes Chromosome inversion While recombination mixes existing alleles, gene mutation is the ultimate source of completely new genetic variation within a gene pool. 37 / 20037) Which of the following statements about natural selection is not true? It can improve the adaptation of species It is selected by a breeder It is regional in nature It affects variations that are heritable Selection by a human breeder is called 'artificial selection', whereas natural selection is driven by environmental pressures. 38 / 20038) The formula calculating the frequency of genotypes and alleles in a population gene pool is known as: Darwin Equation James Hutton Equation Lamarck Equation Hardy-Weinberg Equation The Hardy-Weinberg equation (p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1) calculates genotype and allele frequencies. 39 / 20039) The idea of inheritance of acquired characteristics was presented by: Jean Baptist Lamarck Charles Darwin Thomas Malthus Alfred Wallace Lamarck incorrectly proposed that traits acquired during an organism's lifetime could be passed on to its offspring. 40 / 20040) According to endosymbiosis theory, flagella may have derived by the ingestion of prokaryotes similar to: Spirochete Amoeboid prokaryote Spirillum Aerobic bacterium The theory suggests that eukaryotic flagella and cilia evolved from symbiotic associations with motile spirochete bacteria. 41 / 20041) Insulin converts glucose into: Cortisone Minerals Vitamins Lipids While insulin mainly promotes glycogen synthesis, it also stimulates lipogenesis, converting excess glucose into stored lipids. 42 / 20042) About 70% of the carbon dioxide is carried in blood as: Carbonic anhydrase Tricarbonate Bicarbonate Carbonate The majority of CO2 is transported in the blood plasma as bicarbonate ions (HCO3-). 43 / 20043) Range of lung capacity in humans is: 5-6 liter 12-13 liter 10-11 liter 8-9 liter Total lung capacity for a typical adult human ranges between 5 to 6 liters of air. 44 / 20044) Respiration in Pseudomonas bacteria is: Aerobic Microaerophilic Facultative Anaerobic Most Pseudomonas species are obligate aerobes, relying entirely on oxygen for cellular respiration. 45 / 20045) Autotrophic mode of nutrition in organism depends upon: Saprotrophic mode Parasitic mode Obligate mode Photosynthesis mode Autotrophs, like plants, synthesize their own organic food using light energy via photosynthesis. 46 / 20046) Prokaryotic cells lack: Membrane bound organelles Mesosomes Ribosomes Storage bodies A defining characteristic of prokaryotic cells is the absence of a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. 47 / 20047) Bacterial genome becomes diploid: Before spore formation During binary fission After fertilization of gametes After binary fission During binary fission, the bacterial chromosome replicates, temporarily making the cell diploid before it divides. 48 / 20048) One of the following is CORRECT regarding flagella: Made up of macrofilaments Contains centriole They are immotile Originates from basal bodies Flagella are anchored to the cell envelope by a complex structure called the basal body. 49 / 20049) Which option is CORRECT about endospore? Metabolically actively Endures extreme condition Has a short dormant period Contains moisture for survival Endospores are highly resistant, dormant structures formed by bacteria to survive extreme environmental stress. 50 / 20050) Bacteria divide at exponential rate during which growth phase? Decline Stationary Lag Log The log (logarithmic or exponential) phase is characterized by rapid, exponential bacterial cell division. 51 / 20051) Mesosomes are the invagination of bacterial cell structure: Cell membrane Cell wall Plasmid Cysts Mesosomes are folded invaginations of the bacterial plasma (cell) membrane. 52 / 20052) Female reproductive system consists all of the following EXCEPT: Cervix Ovaries Oviduct Seminiferous tubules Seminiferous tubules are structures found in the male testes where spermatogenesis occurs. 53 / 20053) Which one of the following hormone is responsible for the labor pains in human female at the time of birth of baby? Oxytocin Corticosteroid Progesterone Estrogen Oxytocin causes intense uterine muscle contractions during childbirth, which are experienced as labor pains. 54 / 20054) Fluid secreted by sertoli cells provides liquid medium, protection and nourishment to: Polar body Spermatogonia Oocyte Sperms Sertoli cells, often called 'nurse cells', support the maturation and nourishment of developing sperm cells. 55 / 20055) Corpus luteum during female reproductive cycle produces: Progesterone Follicle stimulating hormone Testosterone Luteinizing Hormone After ovulation, the remnants of the follicle form the corpus luteum, which secretes mainly progesterone. 56 / 20056) Due to the process of follicle atresia: Follicles reach maximum size Graafian follicle ovulates Follicle starts to mature Follicle degenerates Follicular atresia is the breakdown and degeneration of ovarian follicles that do not ovulate. 57 / 20057) Main function of the epididymis is to: Hold the process of spermatogenesis Connect with urethra Transport sperms Produce semen The epididymis acts as a site for sperm maturation and transports them into the vas deferens. 58 / 20058) Immediate next stage of spermatogonia differentiation is: Secondary spermatocyte Primary spermatocytes Sperms Spermatids Spermatogonia undergo mitosis to become primary spermatocytes before entering meiosis. 59 / 20059) Which of the following is included in paired cranial bones? Temporal Vomer Frontal Occipital The human skull contains paired cranial bones, specifically the temporal and parietal bones. 60 / 20060) Which of the following skeletal disorder is an example of autoimmune disorder? Rheumatoid arthritis Spondylosis Sciatica Rickets Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune condition where the body's immune system attacks its own joints. 61 / 20061) Which feature is possessed by smooth muscles? Branched Voluntary Striated appearance Uni-nucleate Smooth muscle cells are involuntary, non-striated, and feature a single, centrally located nucleus (uni-nucleate). 62 / 20062) The accumulation of 'lactic acid' in the muscles results in: Convulsion Extreme fatigue Paralysis Muscle contraction Anaerobic respiration during heavy exercise causes lactic acid buildup, leading to muscle fatigue and cramping. 63 / 20063) Thick filaments in skeletal muscles are composed of: Tropomyosin Actin Myosin Troponin Within muscle myofibrils, the thick protein filaments are comprised almost entirely of the protein myosin. 64 / 20064) Sarcomere is part of myofibril between: Two Z lines Two M lines Two A bands Two I bands A sarcomere, the fundamental unit of muscle contraction, is defined as the segment between two consecutive Z lines. 65 / 20065) Medulla Oblongata is a part of: Hind brain Hippocampus Mid brain Forebrain The hindbrain consists of three primary structures: the medulla oblongata, the pons, and the cerebellum. 66 / 20066) Which of the following is NOT a bone of upper limb? Ulna Humerus Femur Radius The femur is the thigh bone, making it a major bone of the lower limb, not the upper limb. 67 / 20067) Bone forming cells are: Osteoblasts Osteons Osteocytes Osteoclasts Osteoblasts are specialized cells responsible for synthesizing and mineralizing bone matrix during bone formation. 68 / 20068) The chromosome was first observed by: Robert Hooke Theodor Schwann Anton van Leeuwenhoek Walther Flemming Walther Flemming first observed chromosomes during his studies on cell division. 69 / 20069) Which one of the following is not an amino acid? Glutamic acid Folic acid Glycine Lysine Folic acid is a vitamin, not an amino acid. Glycine, Alanine, and Aspartic acid are all amino acids. 70 / 20070) Number of moles in an element is directly proportional to: Molar mass Empirical formula mass Mass of an element Formula mass According to the formula (Moles = Given Mass / Molar Mass), for any specific element, its molar mass is constant. Thus, the number of moles increases directly as the given mass increases. 71 / 20071) The type and relative amount of each isotope in an element can be found by: IR spectroscopy Mass spectrometry N.M.R U.V spectroscopy Mass spectrometry is the analytical technique used to measure the mass-to-charge ratio of ions, allowing the determination of isotopes and their relative abundances. 72 / 20072) The atomic masses of element depend upon: None of the above Atomic number Number of electrons Number of isotopes & their abundance While average atomic mass depends on isotopes and their abundances, the fundamental mass of an individual atom relies directly on the sum of its protons and neutrons. According to the official key, None of the above is designated as correct here. 73 / 20073) No Individual atom in the sample of 1 mole of Neon has a mass of 20.18 a.m.u. because it is: It is a fractional mass Average atomic mass of Ne It is molar mass of Ne Overall mass of an isobar 20.18 a.m.u. is the weighted average atomic mass of naturally occurring Neon isotopes, not the mass of any single, individual Neon atom. 74 / 20074) The p orbital has: 4 lobes 2 lobes 3 lobes 5 lobes A standard p-orbital has a dumbbell shape, which consists of two distinct lobes separated by a node at the nucleus. 75 / 20075) Which of the following electronic configuration is correct for carbon? 1s² 2s² 2p² 1s² 2s² 2p³ 1s² 2s² 2p⁴ 1s² 2s² 2p¹ Carbon has an atomic number of 6, meaning it has 6 electrons. Filling the orbitals according to the Aufbau principle gives 1s² 2s² 2p². 76 / 20076) Intermolecular forces between molecules of ideal gas are: Absent Strong Weak Moderate One of the primary postulates of the kinetic molecular theory for an ideal gas is that there are no attractive or repulsive intermolecular forces between the gas particles. 77 / 20077) The correct ideal gas equation is: qV = nRT gV = nRT pV = nRT yV = nRT The ideal gas law relates pressure (p), volume (V), amount of substance (n), the ideal gas constant (R), and temperature (T) as pV = nRT. 78 / 20078) The real gases show deviation from ideal behavior at: Low temperature and high pressure High temperature and high pressure High temperature and low pressure Low temperature and low pressure Real gases deviate most from ideal behavior at high pressures (where molecular volume becomes significant) and low temperatures (where intermolecular forces become significant). 79 / 20079) In order to boil water at 110°C, external pressure should be: 665-670 torr 200-760 torr 660-700 torr 760-1200 torr Water boils at 100°C at standard atmospheric pressure (760 torr). To boil it at a higher temperature like 110°C, the external pressure must be greater than 760 torr. 80 / 20080) Which one of the following DO NOT have tendency to form hydrogen bonding? Hydrocarbon Carboxylic acid Ethyl alcohol Ammonia Hydrocarbons consist entirely of nonpolar C-C and C-H bonds and lack highly electronegative atoms (like N, O, F) required to form hydrogen bonds. 81 / 20081) Boiling point of a liquid is a temperature at which: Viscosity equals the atmospheric pressure Viscosity is less than the atmospheric pressure Vapour pressure equals the atmospheric pressure Surface tension is greater than the atmospheric pressure A liquid reaches its boiling point when its internal vapour pressure becomes equal to the external atmospheric pressure. 82 / 20082) Whenever the crystalline solids are broken they do so along definite planes known as: Sagittal planes Cleavage planes Refractory planes Coronal planes Crystalline solids possess an ordered internal structure, allowing them to break smoothly along specific crystallographic planes called cleavage planes. 83 / 20083) One of the following is NOT an example of amorphous solids: Glass Plastic Rubber Glucose Glucose forms a highly ordered crystal lattice structure, making it a crystalline solid, whereas plastic, glass, and rubber are amorphous. 84 / 20084) In graphite the carbon atoms are arranged in which of the following structure? Hexagonal Tetragonal Trigonal Rhombic In graphite, each carbon atom is covalently bonded to three others in a flat, repeating hexagonal ring lattice. 85 / 20085) The principle that states that if a stress is applied to a system at equilibrium the system nullify the effect of stress as far as possible is: Haber's Le-Chatelier Charles' Boyle's Le Chatelier's Principle dictates that an equilibrium system will shift its position to counteract any applied external stress. 86 / 20086) Identify the CORRECT option required for the maximum yield of ammonia by Haber's process: High pressure low temperature continual removal of ammonia High pressure high temperature continual removal of ammonia High pressure low temperature continual addition of ammonia Low pressure low temperature continual removal of ammonia The Haber process is exothermic and has fewer moles of product gas. According to Le Chatelier's principle, high pressure, low temperature, and product removal favor the forward reaction. 87 / 20087) Consider the following reaction in equilibrium and tell addition of which chemical will turn the cloudy solution into clear solution? BiCl₃ + H₂O ⇌ BiOCl + 2HCl BiCl₃ BiOCl HCl H₂O BiOCl forms a cloudy white precipitate. Adding HCl increases product concentration, pushing the equilibrium to the left, which dissolves the precipitate to form a clear solution of BiCl₃. 88 / 20088) Identify the correct formula to calculate rate of reaction: Time taken for the change x Change in concentration of substance Change in concentration of substance / Time taken for the change Change in concentration of substance / Time taken for the change x 100 Time taken for the change / Change in concentration of substance The rate of a chemical reaction is defined as the change in concentration of a reactant or product per unit of time. 89 / 20089) Consider the hypothetical equation aA + bB -> cC + dD: Which of the following represents correct rate equation? Rate = k[B]² Rate = k[A][B] Rate = k[A]ᵃ Rate = k[A]ᵃ[B]ᵇ Assuming it represents an elementary step, the rate law is proportional to the concentration of the reactants raised to the power of their stoichiometric coefficients. 90 / 20090) If a reaction rate does not change with concentration then it is: Zero order 3rd order 2nd order 1st order In a zero-order reaction, the rate is entirely independent of the concentration of the reactants. 91 / 20091) Which of the following is CORRECT Arrhenius equation? K = Ae^(-Ea/UT) K = Ae^(-Ea/RT) K = Ae^(-Ea/ST) K = Ae^(-Ea/QT) The Arrhenius equation mathematically models the temperature dependence of reaction rates, given by k = A e^(-Ea/RT). 92 / 20092) In endothermic reaction, the heat content of the: Reactants & Products will not change Reactants and products is equal Products is more than that of reactants Reactants is more than that of products Endothermic reactions absorb heat from their surroundings, resulting in products that possess a higher total enthalpy (heat content) than the initial reactants. 93 / 20093) All of the following steps are used to calculate the lattice energy in Born-Haber cycle EXCEPT: Atomizing the metal Ionize non metal Ionizing the metal Deionize the metal The Born-Haber cycle analyzes the formation of an ionic compound through steps like atomization and ionization, but 'deionizing' the metal is not a step in the process. 94 / 20094) The enthalpy change when 1 Mole of water is formed by the reaction of acid with an alkali under standard conditions is known as: Enthalpy of neutralization Enthalpy of reaction Enthalpy of combustion Enthalpy of formation The standard enthalpy of neutralization is explicitly defined as the heat evolved when one mole of water is produced from the reaction of an acid and a base. 95 / 20095) Oxidation number of 'Mn' in KMnO₄ is: 0 -7 +1 +7 Potassium (K) is +1 and Oxygen (O) is -2. For the neutral compound KMnO₄: 1 + Mn + 4(-2) = 0. Solving this gives Mn = +7. 96 / 20096) Which step is irrelevant with respect to balancing of redox equations by oxidation number method? Equalize the number of electrons lost and gained Identify the element undergoing a change in oxidation number Split the reaction into two half reactions Assign oxidation number to all the atoms involved in the equation Splitting the reaction into two half-reactions is specific to the 'Ion-Electron' method, not the 'Oxidation Number' method. 97 / 20097) Which of the following is NOT a correct feature of electrolytic cells? Alternating current source is connected Oxidation occurs at anode Reduction occurs at cathode Electrochemical reaction takes place Electrolytic cells require a unidirectional flow of electrons to drive the non-spontaneous reaction, which necessitates a Direct Current (DC) source, not Alternating Current (AC). 98 / 20098) Which of the following has a coordinate bond? NH₃BF₃ CaO NaCl H₂O In the adduct NH₃BF₃, the nitrogen atom in ammonia donates its lone pair of electrons to the electron-deficient boron in BF₃, forming a coordinate covalent (dative) bond. 99 / 20099) Which of the following is NOT a feature of Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion theory? It determines the shape of molecule It helps in understanding interaction of medicinal drug molecules Pairs of electrons repel each other Only lone pairs participate in determining geometry of molecules VSEPR theory states that both bond pairs AND lone pairs of electrons around a central atom determine the molecule's overall geometry through mutual repulsion. 100 / 200100) Which of the following has smallest atomic radius: S P Na Mg Atomic radius decreases across a period from left to right due to increasing effective nuclear charge. Sulfur (S) is the furthest right among the options given. 101 / 200101) The difference of lithium from the other alkali metals is mainly because of: Small radius and low charge density Small radius and high charge density Large radius and high charge density Large radius and low charge density Lithium behaves anomalously compared to other Group 1 metals primarily because of its exceptionally small atomic/ionic radius, which gives it a very high charge density and polarizing power. 102 / 200102) Which of the following is not Basic in nature: Sodium oxide Aluminum oxide Magnesium oxide Potassium oxide Unlike the oxides of alkali and alkaline earth metals which are strictly basic, Aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃) is amphoteric, meaning it can react as both an acid and a base. 103 / 200103) The solubility of sulphates of alkaline metals generally: Doesn't change down the group Increase down the group Decrease down the group Increase then decrease down the group For alkaline earth metals (Group 2), the solubility of their sulfates dramatically decreases down the group (e.g., MgSO₄ is highly soluble while BaSO₄ is practically insoluble) due to hydration energy dropping faster than lattice energy. 104 / 200104) Which of the following is NOT an Alloy: Steel Bronze Brass Graphite Graphite is an elemental allotrope of carbon, not an alloy. Steel, brass, and bronze are all metallic mixtures. 105 / 200105) Electronic configuration of chromium (Proton number 24) is: [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s² [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹ [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s² [Ar] 3d⁴ 4s² Chromium exhibits an anomalous electron configuration to achieve the extra stability of a half-filled d-subshell, shifting an electron from 4s to 3d to become [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹. 106 / 200106) Which of the following is NOT a property of transition elements? Good conductors of electricity Ions and compounds are colorless Hard metals High melting points A defining characteristic of transition metals is that they frequently form highly colored ions and compounds due to d-d electron transitions. 107 / 200107) 1-Butene and 2-Butene are showing which type of isomerism? Position Functional Group Metamerism Chain These two compounds share the same carbon skeleton and functional group, but the location (position) of the carbon-carbon double bond differs. 108 / 200108) Which type of isomerism is displayed by compounds having same structural formula but different position of atoms on both sides of carbon bond? Chain Geometric Metamerism Tautomerism Geometric (cis-trans) isomerism arises due to restricted rotation around a double bond, resulting in different spatial arrangements of atoms across the bond. 109 / 200109) Homocyclic organic compounds are sub divided into two types namely: Alicyclic and Aromatic Aromatic and Non aromatic Alkenes & Alkynes Saturated & Unsaturated Homocyclic (or carbocyclic) compounds, which have rings made solely of carbon atoms, are broadly classified into alicyclic rings and aromatic rings. 110 / 200110) Which of the following is an example of substituent group which release electrons to benzene ring: -NH₂ -NO₂ -CN -NR₃⁺ The amino group (-NH₂) is strongly electron-donating via resonance because it possesses a lone pair of electrons that can be delocalized into the benzene ring. 111 / 200111) Which one of the following represents the correct reactants and products for the nitration of benzene? Benzene + HNO₃ -> Dinitrobenzene + O₂ Benzene + HNO₂ -> Nitrobenzene + H₂O Benzene + HNO₃ -> Nitrobenzene + H₂O Benzene + HNO₃ -> Aminobenzene + H₂O The standard nitration of benzene requires concentrated nitric acid (HNO₃) and concentrated sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) at 50-55°C, yielding nitrobenzene (C₆H₅NO₂) and water. 112 / 200112) In Friedel Craft acylation an acyl group is introduced in benzene ring in the presence of catalyst: V₂O₅ H₂SO₄ AlCl₃ Sunlight Friedel-Crafts reactions require a strong Lewis acid catalyst, most commonly anhydrous aluminum chloride (AlCl₃), to generate the highly reactive acylium ion electrophile. 113 / 200113) Identify correct ascending order of reactivity of alkyl halides: I, F, Cl, Br Cl, Br, I, F F, Cl, Br, I Br, I, F, Cl The reactivity of alkyl halides increases as the carbon-halogen bond strength decreases. Bond strength falls down the group, so the order of reactivity is R-F < R-Cl < R-Br < R-I. 114 / 200114) Identify the correct statement related to substitution and elimination of alkyl halides: Strong bases causes substitution in preference to elimination Substitution is favored more than elimination by decreasing solvent polarity Role of leaving groups in elimination is similar to substitution Decrease in temperature will favor elimination more than substitution Both substitution and elimination reactions require a good leaving group to proceed efficiently. A weaker carbon-halogen bond makes for a better leaving group, which favors both reaction pathways equally. 115 / 200115) Alkyl Halides involving -C-X bond breakage and -C-Nu bond formation simultaneously would follow which one of the following mechanisms? E1 SN1 E2 SN2 The SN2 mechanism is a concerted, single-step reaction where the nucleophile attacks and the leaving group departs simultaneously without forming an intermediate carbocation. 116 / 200116) CnH₂nO is the general formula of: Carboxylic acid Ether Ketones Carbolic acid The general molecular formula CnH₂nO applies to saturated, non-cyclic aliphatic aldehydes and ketones. 117 / 200117) The blue color of Fehling solution is changed to red when warmed with an aldehyde due to formation of which of the following? NO₂ Cu₂O Ag₂O SO₂ Aldehydes reduce the soluble Cu²⁺ complex in Fehling's solution to insoluble copper(I) oxide (Cu₂O), which precipitates as a distinctive brick-red solid. 118 / 200118) Reaction of HCN with formaldehyde is a: Nucleophilic substitution reaction Electrophilic addition reaction Electrophilic substitution reaction Nucleophilic addition reaction The partially positive carbonyl carbon in formaldehyde is attacked by the cyanide nucleophile (CN⁻), characterizing it as a nucleophilic addition reaction. 119 / 200119) Which of the following alcohol can give Iodoform reaction? 1-Propanol 1-Butanol Ethanol Methanol The iodoform test is positive for alcohols containing the CH₃-CH(OH)- group. Ethanol (CH₃CH₂OH) is the only primary alcohol that gives a positive iodoform test. 120 / 200120) Common name of 2-hydroxy propanoic acid is: Lactic acid Phthalic acid Tartaric acid Malic acid Lactic acid is the common name for 2-hydroxypropanoic acid, famously found in sour milk and fatigued muscles. 121 / 200121) Which of the following is correct regarding phenol? Phenol is less acidic than water Phenol and water are equally acidic Phenol is less acidic than carboxylic acid Phenol is less acidic than ethanol Phenols are more acidic than water and aliphatic alcohols, but they are significantly less acidic than carboxylic acids. 122 / 200122) When carboxylic acid are heated with alcohol in the presence of sulphuric acid one of the following is formed: Acid Anhydride Amides Acyl chloride Esters This is Fischer esterification. A carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst to produce an ester and water. 123 / 200123) In an elastic collision the total kinetic energy: Increases after the collision Dissipates after collision Before and after collision remains the same Reduces after the collision By definition, a perfectly elastic collision is one in which both the total momentum and the total kinetic energy of the system are conserved. 124 / 200124) The instantaneous velocity along the curved path is: Along the tangent Parallel to the radius Anti-parallel to the radius Perpendicular to the slop The instantaneous velocity vector of an object moving along any path is always directed tangentially to the path at that specific point. 125 / 200125) The range of projectile will be maximum if the factor sin(2θ) becomes: -1 Zero 2 1 The formula for projectile range is R = (v² sin(2θ)) / g. The maximum value of the sine function is 1, which occurs when θ = 45°. 126 / 200126) The two dimensional motion under constant acceleration due to gravity is called: Vibratory motion Projectile motion Circular motion Rotational motion Projectile motion is a form of 2D motion where an object moves along a curved path under the constant downward acceleration of gravity. 127 / 200127) In velocity time graph the area under graph is equal to the: Distance covered by object Velocity of an object Speed of an object Acceleration of an object The area under a velocity-time graph represents the displacement or distance covered by the object over that time interval. 128 / 200128) According to Newton's Law of Motion the mass of the object is a quantitative measure of its: Speed Weight Inertia Acceleration Mass is defined as the quantitative measure of an object's inertia, which is its resistance to changes in its state of motion. 129 / 200129) 1KWh = 3.6 MJ 3.6 J 3.6 KJ 3.6 GJ 1 kWh = 1000 Watts × 3600 seconds = 3,600,000 Joules = 3.6 Megajoules (MJ). 130 / 200130) Which of the following is a non-conservative force? Gravitational force Elastic spring force Frictional force Electric force Friction is a non-conservative force because the work it does depends on the path taken and it dissipates mechanical energy as heat. 131 / 200131) Work done is equal to: Effort x distance Effort distance Effort + distance Effort distance Work is defined as the product of the force (effort) applied to an object and the distance it moves in the direction of that force. 132 / 200132) When a force of 1N displaces its point of application by 1m in the direction of force, the work done is: 10 J 1 J 0 J J Work = Force × Distance. W = 1 N × 1 m = 1 Joule (J). 133 / 200133) An electric motor is used to lift the weight of 2.0N through a vertical distance of 100 cm in 4 sec. What is the power output of the motor? 0.25 W 0.5 W 0.75 W 1 W Power = Work / Time = (Force × Distance) / Time. P = (2.0 N × 1.0 m) / 4 s = 0.5 Watts. 134 / 200134) The centripetal acceleration of an object moving along a circle of radius 'r' with an angular speed 'w' is given by the formula: a = rω² a = r²ω² a = rω a = r²ω Centripetal acceleration can be expressed in terms of angular velocity (ω) as a = v²/r. Since v = rω, substituting gives a = (rω)²/r = rω². 135 / 200135) An air craft makes a turn in a horizontal circle of radius 100m. It is travelling with a velocity of 250 m/sec. The angular velocity of the air craft will be: 2.5 rad/sec 3.5 rad/sec 3 rad/sec 1.5 rad/sec Angular velocity ω = v / r. Thus, ω = 250 / 100 = 2.5 rad/sec. 136 / 200136) A particle of mass 'm' is moving on a circular path of radius 'r' with velocity 'v', then centripetal force acting on it is F. if the velocity of particle increases by 2 times and radius of circular path increases by 4 times then new centripetal force F' will be: F' = F F' = 1/2 F F' = 2F F' = 4F F = mv²/r. New force F' = m(2v)² / (4r) = m(4v²) / 4r = mv²/r = F. The force remains the same. 137 / 200137) A roller coaster is moving with 30 ms⁻¹ on a circular track of radius 30m. the net mass of coaster + passengers is m. The centripetal force acting on it is: 900m m 450 m 30m F = mv²/r = m(30²) / 30 = m(900) / 30 = 30m. 138 / 200138) Which one of the following is INCORRECT about the nodes when the string is plucked? Amplitude of vibration is zero Produced at the fixed ends of strings Distance between consecutive nodes is 1 wavelength Do not move along the string The distance between two consecutive nodes in a stationary wave is exactly half a wavelength (λ/2), not one full wavelength. 139 / 200139) In transverse waves the portion above the mean level is called: Wave length Wave front Wave trough Wave crest The highest point or portion of a transverse wave above the equilibrium (mean) position is called the crest. 140 / 200140) Which one of the following does not cause stationary waves? Two waves of unequal amplitude Two waves of equal frequency Two waves travelling in opposite directions Two waves of same speed Stationary (standing) waves require the interference of two waves traveling in opposite directions with the SAME frequency, speed, and ideally the same amplitude. 141 / 200141) Select the appropriate Doppler equation when source is approaching the stationary observer where f_o is the observed frequency, f_s is frequency of source, v is the speed of sound, v_s is the speed of source relative to observer: f_o = [v / (v + v_s)] f_s f_o = [(v - v_s) / (v + v_s)] f_s f_o = [(v - v_s) / v] f_s f_o = [v / (v - v_s)] f_s When a source approaches a stationary observer, the apparent frequency increases. This requires a smaller denominator, hence v - v_s. 142 / 200142) The distance between two successive particles which are exactly in the same state of vibration is called: Amplitude Frequency Time period Wavelength Wavelength is the spatial period of a wave, defined as the distance between consecutive corresponding points of the same phase (e.g., crest to crest). 143 / 200143) During the isothermal process, the temperature: alters throughout the process increases throughout the process remains constant throughout the process remains constant during the initial phase of the process By definition, an isothermal process is a thermodynamic process in which the temperature of the system remains perfectly constant throughout. 144 / 200144) What is the value of heat energy (Q) in an adiabatic process? 0 -1 +1 +2 An adiabatic process occurs without the transfer of heat or mass between a thermodynamic system and its surroundings, meaning Q = 0. 145 / 200145) The Coulomb's law states: Force between two point charges is inversely proportional to the product of the charges and directly proportional to the square of the distance between them Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and the square of the distance between them Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the sum of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them Force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them Coulomb's Law is formulated as F = k(q1q2)/r², meaning it is directly proportional to the product of charges and inversely proportional to the square of their distance. 146 / 200146) The formula V = W/q₀ represents: Electric intensity Electric field gradient Electric potential Electric power Electric potential (V) is defined as the work done (W) per unit test charge (q₀) in bringing that charge from infinity to a point. 147 / 200147) The S.I unit of capacitance of a capacitor is: Coulomb Farad Volt Ampere Capacitance is measured in Farads (F), representing one coulomb of charge stored per volt of potential difference. 148 / 200148) Electric intensity between two oppositely charge plates in the middle region is: Variable Uniform Non-uniform Cannot be predicted The electric field between two large, parallel, oppositely charged plates is uniform in the central region, away from the edges. 149 / 200149) Find potential difference in moving 2 C charge which requires 600 J of work between two points. 300V 2400V 1200V 150V Potential Difference (V) = Work (W) / Charge (q) = 600 J / 2 C = 300 V. 150 / 200150) Which one of the following is NOT a feature of electric forces? They can be attractive They act on charges They can be repulsive They act on masses Electric forces act on electric charges. Forces that act strictly on masses due to the property of mass itself are gravitational forces. 151 / 200151) A charge of 90 C passes through a wire for 30 seconds. Then the current in the wire will be: 3 mA 0.3 A 0.3 mA 3 A Current (I) = Charge (Q) / Time (t) = 90 C / 30 s = 3 Amperes. 152 / 200152) The magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the potential difference across it as long as temperature of conductor is kept constant is known as: Ohm's Law Gauss Law Joule's Law Ampere's Law This is the classical definition of Ohm's Law (V = IR), which holds true for ohmic conductors at constant temperature. 153 / 200153) When length of copper wire is doubled then resistivity becomes: Double Four times Half Remains same Resistivity is an intrinsic property of the material (copper) and depends only on its nature and temperature, not on physical dimensions like length. 154 / 200154) The resistance of semi-conductor with rise in temperature: Remain same Increases Decreases Variable Unlike metals, semiconductors have a negative temperature coefficient of resistivity; increasing thermal energy frees up more charge carriers, thus lowering resistance. 155 / 200155) Volt x Ampere is the measure of: Current Resistance Power Volt Electrical Power (P) = Voltage (V) × Current (I). Thus, Volts × Amperes equals Watts, the unit of power. 156 / 200156) The formula Φ = B.A represents: Electric flux density Magnetic flux Gravitational flux Electric flux Magnetic flux (Φ) is the dot product of the magnetic field vector (B) and the area vector (A). 157 / 200157) Which of the following statement is incorrect for any magnetic field lines? Lines start at north pole and ends at south pole Magnetic field is strongest when the lines are farthest Lines never touch or cross each other The lines are curved The magnetic field is strongest where the field lines are packed closest together, not farthest apart. 158 / 200158) The unit of magnetic flux density is: Wb m Wb m⁻² Wb m⁻¹ Wb Magnetic flux density (B) is flux (Webers) per unit area (square meters), so its unit is Wb m⁻², also known as a Tesla (T). 159 / 200159) The induced current will flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces it is statement of: Ampere's Law Faraday's Law Joule's Law Lenz's Law Lenz's Law dictates the direction of induced current, ensuring the conservation of energy. 160 / 200160) In an AC generator the emf will be maximum when factor sin(ωt) is equal to: 1/2 2 1 Zero The induced EMF is given by E = E₀ sin(ωt). The maximum value of the sine function is 1, which gives E = E₀. 161 / 200161) Electric generators and transformers are based on the principles of: Faraday's law Hook's law Ampere's law Coulomb's law Both devices rely on electromagnetic induction, which is described by Faraday's Law of Induction. 162 / 200162) In an ideal transformer: Power input is more than half of the power output Power input is greater than Power output Power input is equal to Power output Power input is less than half of the power output An ideal transformer assumes 100% efficiency with no energy losses, meaning Input Power (VpIp) equals Output Power (VsIs). 163 / 200163) The conversion of A.C into D.C is called rectification and circuit is called rectifier. Which component of electronics acts as a rectifier? Inductor Transistor Diode Transformer A diode allows current to flow in only one direction, effectively converting alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC). 164 / 200164) Full wave rectification is given by: Three diodes connected in bridge type arrangement Four diodes connected in bridge type arrangements Two diodes connected in bridge type arrangements One diode connected in bridge type arrangements A standard bridge rectifier circuit requires four diodes arranged in a bridge configuration to achieve full-wave rectification. 165 / 200165) A diode characteristic curve is a plot between: Reverse voltage and forward voltage Current and time Voltage and current Voltage and time An I-V (Current-Voltage) characteristic curve visually plots the relationship between the current flowing through the diode and the voltage applied across it. 166 / 200166) The value of Planck constant is: 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ Js⁻¹ 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ Js 6.63 × 10³⁴ Js 6.63 × 10³⁴ Js⁻¹ Planck's constant (h) is a fundamental physical constant with a value of approximately 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ Joule-seconds. 167 / 200167) The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle moving at 10⁶ m/s and having mass 10⁻³⁰ kg: 1.5 × 10⁹ m 6.6 × 10⁻¹⁰ m 1.9 × 10⁻⁵ m 7.2 × 10⁻⁸ m Using λ = h / mv: λ = (6.63 × 10⁻³⁴) / (10⁻³⁰ × 10⁶) = 6.63 × 10⁻¹⁰ meters. 168 / 200168) Light propagates through space as a wave is evident by all of the following EXCEPT: Photoelectric effect Polarization Interference Diffraction The photoelectric effect demonstrates the particle (photon) nature of light, whereas interference, diffraction, and polarization demonstrate its wave nature. 169 / 200169) Which series falls in ultra violet region? Lyman Pfund Paschen Brachett The Lyman series of the hydrogen emission spectrum involves electron transitions down to the ground state (n=1) and emits photons in the ultraviolet region. 170 / 200170) The potential through which an electron should be accelerated, so that, on collision it can lift the electron in the atom from its ground state to some higher state is known as: Acceleration potential Ionization potential Excitation potential String potential Excitation potential provides just enough energy to bump an electron to a higher energy level without completely removing it (which would be ionization potential). 171 / 200171) Which of the following regarding X Rays is INCORRECT? They are part of electromagnetic spectrum They are high energy photons Have higher wavelength than visible light They are highly penetrating in soft body tissues X-rays have much higher energy and therefore a significantly LOWER (shorter) wavelength than visible light. 172 / 200172) The unit of decay constant is: m s m⁻¹ s⁻¹ The radioactive decay constant (λ) represents probability of decay per unit time, so its unit is reciprocal time, commonly s⁻¹. 173 / 200173) If we have 'N₀' number of any radioactive element then after a period of 'n' half-lives the number of atoms left behind is: 2ⁿ N₀ (1/2)ⁿ N₀ (1/2 N₀)ⁿ (2 N₀)ⁿ The number of remaining undecayed nuclei halves after every half-life, expressed mathematically as N = N₀(1/2)ⁿ. 174 / 200174) Which of the following is NOT the Somatic biological effect of radiation? Genes mutation Loss of hair Induction of cancer Skin burn Gene mutations in reproductive cells are considered genetic effects (passed to offspring), whereas burns, hair loss, and cancer in the exposed individual are somatic effects. 175 / 200175) An artificial radioactive element can be made by bombarding: High energy particles on stable elements Low energy particles on stable elements High energy particles on unstable elements Low energy particles on unstable elements Artificial radioactivity is typically induced by bombarding stable, naturally occurring elements with high-energy particles (like alpha particles or neutrons) to make their nuclei unstable. 176 / 200176) What does the word 'SURPLUS' mean? In excess Within reach A mathematical term Salutation Surplus refers to an amount of something left over when requirements have been met, synonymous with excess. 177 / 200177) What does the word 'ANCESTOR' mean? Forefathers Branch of astrology Type of receptors Collection of stars An ancestor is a person from whom one is descended, typically someone further back than a grandparent; a forefather. 178 / 200178) What does the word 'SPILL' mean? Deliver Coil Drop Spoil To spill means to cause or allow liquid to fall, flow, or run over the edge of a container. 'Drop' is the closest synonymous action among the intended options. 179 / 200179) Pick the CORRECT option: The supervisor has not compromised nor will ever compromise. The supervisor have nor will ever compromise. The supervisor has nor will ever compromise. The supervisor has nor will ever compromised. To be grammatically complete and maintain parallel structure, the helping verb 'has' needs its past participle 'compromised', while 'will' takes the base form 'compromise'. 180 / 200180) The soup _____ good. Tastes Has taste... Is tasting Taste 'Soup' is a singular, uncountable noun, so it requires the singular present tense verb 'tastes'. 181 / 200181) I ______ him for a long time. Had never knew Would never knew Had never been known Have never known The present perfect tense ('have never known') is used to describe an action or state that spans from the past up to the present. 182 / 200182) Choose the sentence that is punctuated correctly: He said to his disciples, "watch and, pray" He said to his disciples, "Watch and pray." He said to his disciples' "watch and pray." He said to his disciples "Watch and pray." A comma is required before introducing a direct quotation, and the quotation itself should begin with a capital letter and end with a period inside the quotation marks. 183 / 200183) Choose the CORRECT spellings: Pharoah Pheraoh Pharaoh Pheroh 'Pharaoh' is the correct spelling for the ancient Egyptian rulers. 184 / 200184) Choose the CORRECT sentence: She has beauty, brains, and wealth; a rare combination. She has beauty, brains and wealth-a rare combination. She has beauty, brains, and wealth: a rare combination. She has beauty, brains, and wealth-a rare combination. This option correctly uses commas in a series without the Oxford comma (acceptable in British/Pakistani English conventions) and uses a hyphen/dash correctly to append the summarizing phrase. 185 / 200185) Choose the correct sentence: In 1838 Schleiden suggest that all plants were made of celis In 1838 Schleiden suggested that all plant were made of cells In 1838 Schleiden suggested to all plants were made of cells In 1838 Schleiden suggested that all plants were made of cells Option A is the only grammatically correct sentence, using the correct past tense 'suggested', the plural 'plants', and the correct spelling of 'cells'. 186 / 200186) _____ words spoken in earnest will convince him. Few The few A few Fewer 'A few' means 'some' and has a positive meaning, which fits the context of words having the power to convince. 187 / 200187) He takes _____ his father. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition. Up In After Down The phrasal verb 'takes after' means to resemble a parent or ancestor in appearance or temperament. 188 / 200188) Choose the CORRECT sentence: There's mr. hashim whome they say is the best portrait painter in the town. There's Mr. Hashim who they say is best portrait painter in the town. There's Mr. Hashim, who they say is the best portrait painter in the town. Theres' Mr. Hashim which they say is the portrait painter in the town Option B uses proper capitalization ('Mr. Hashim'), the correct relative pronoun ('who', functioning as the subject of 'is'), and correct comma usage for a non-restrictive clause. 189 / 200189) Choose the CORRECT sentence: Gulliver travels was writen at Swift. Gullivers travel was written by Swift Gulliver's Travels was written by Swift. Gulliver travels was writen to Swift. Option C correctly capitalizes and punctuates the book title ('Gulliver's Travels'), spells 'written' correctly, and uses the correct preposition 'by' to denote authorship. 190 / 200190) Choose the CORRECT sentence: "The unexamined life said Socrates", is disfit to be lived by man. The inexamined life, said Socrates, "is unfit to be lived by man" "The unexamined life", said Socrates, "is unfit to be lived by man." "The disexamined life" said Socrates is unfit to be lived by man. Option A correctly breaks the quotation around the speaker attribution ('said Socrates'), punctuating both halves of the quote accurately. 191 / 200191) Choose the CORRECT sentence: You have often heard of me speeking of my friend Wahaj waheed a barrister here you have often heard me speak about my friend; wahaj waheed-a barrister hear You have often heard me speak of my friend, Wahaj Waheed, who is a barrister here. You have often heard me. Speak off my friend, wahaj waheed who is a Barrister here Option B correctly spells the words, properly capitalizes the proper noun 'Wahaj Waheed', and uses commas correctly to set off the appositive/relative clause. 192 / 200192) Choose the CORRECT sentence: The first space traveller was Dennis Tito-from united State The First Space Traveller was Dennis Tito, from, the United states The first space travaler was Dennis Tito, from the United States The first space traveller was Dennis Tito from the United States. Option A has proper capitalization, correct spelling ('traveller'), and does not feature unnecessary or awkward punctuation. 193 / 200193) Choose the CORRECT sentence: It was awfully good of you to propose a day's picnic at Murree. It was greatly good by you to proposd day's picnic at murree It was awfully good by you to proposed a day's picnic in Murree. It was very good off you too propose days picnic in Murree The standard English idiom is 'good of you'. Option C also uses the correct verb form 'to propose' and properly capitalizes 'Murree'. 194 / 200194) I. The government has increased the taxes on all businesses in Pakistan.II. Many small businesses will have to close their operations in Pakistan. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes Both the statements I and II are independent causes Increased taxes create a financial burden (cause), which logically leads to small businesses being unable to survive and shutting down (effect). 195 / 200195) I. The government has increased the taxes on all businesses in Pakistan.II. Many small businesses will have to close their operations in Pakistan. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes Both the statements I and II are independent causes Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect Increased taxes create a financial burden (cause), which logically leads to small businesses being unable to survive and shutting down (effect). 196 / 200196) Read the passage and the following statements below. Then choose the correct option, basing your answer only on the information provided.Pakistan is rich in wildlife and culture. It is home to many sorts of wildlife, from the Ibex to the Indus River Dolphin; and people from most countries in the world have made their home here.STATEMENTS:I. Pakistan is a rich country.II. People from all nationalities of the world live in Pakistan.III. Pakistan is home to at least one dolphin species. Only II and III are correct Only III is correct Only I and II are correct Only I and III are correct Statement I is wrong (rich in wildlife/culture is not the same as economically rich). Statement II is wrong (the text says 'most countries', not 'all nationalities'). Statement III is correct because the Indus River Dolphin is explicitly mentioned. 197 / 200197) Observe the pattern and select the next term in the sequence: JEQ, HEO, FEM DEK GFN DFK GEL First letter: J -> H -> F (skips one letter backwards, so next is D). Middle letter: E remains constant. Third letter: Q -> O -> M (skips one letter backwards, so next is K). This results in DEK. 198 / 200198) Read the following and choose the correct answer:'X, Y and Z are three whole numbers less than 24 but greater than 11. X is the smallest prime number. Y is the largest number divisible by 3. Z is the smallest number divisible by 11.' X is 13, Y is 24, Z is 11 X is 13, Y is 21, Z is 22 X is 11, Y is 24, Z is 22 X is 11, Y is 21, Z is 11 The numbers must be strictly between 11 and 24. X (smallest prime > 11) is 13. Y (largest divisible by 3 < 24) is 21. Z (smallest divisible by 11 > 11) is 22. 199 / 200199) Read the following and choose the correct answer:'P, Q and R are one-digit, non-negative numbers. P is the smallest even number. Q is the largest odd number. R is 5.' (Q+R)*P=8 P+Q+R=16 (Q+R)*P=30 P+Q+R=12 Assuming 'smallest even number' in this specific testing context implies positive integers, P = 2. Q (largest 1-digit odd) = 9. R = 5. Therefore, 2 + 9 + 5 = 16. 200 / 200200) All hammers are tools. Some tools are useless things. All useless things are trash.Which of the following conclusions is NECESSARILY TRUE given only the information above?CONCLUSIONS:I. Some hammers are trashII. Some tools are trashIII. All useless things are tools III I & III I II Since some tools belong to the category of 'useless things', and 'all useless things' are inherently 'trash', it logically bridges that those specific tools must also be trash. Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz UHS 2025 Premium Content Unlock Full Access Get all MCQs & Detailed Explanations Report a question What's wrong with this question?You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. UHS 2025 1 / 1801)Kidneys perform their osmoregulatory role under the effect of Antidiuretic Hormone, which type of urine is produced in this situation? Hypotonic urine with increased volume Hypertonic urine with increased volume Hypertonic urine with decreased volume Hypotonic urine with decreased volume ADH increases water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to concentrated (hypertonic) urine and a reduced overall volume. 2 / 1802)Which part of brain controls transition between sleeping and wakefulness? Cerebellum Cerebrum Pons Medulla oblongata The pons contains nuclei that are essential for regulating the sleep-wake cycle and transitions between these states. 3 / 1803)Which part of the brain contains central chemoreceptors that monitor CO2 levels in blood? Hypothalamus Medulla oblongata Pons Midbrain The medulla oblongata has central chemoreceptors that detect changes in blood pH and CO2 to regulate respiratory rate. 4 / 1804)Which component of a reflex arc connects the sensory neuron to the motor neuron within the spinal cord? Associative neuron Muscle fiber Receptor Effector An associative neuron (interneuron) acts as a bridge between sensory input and motor output within the central nervous system. 5 / 1805)The 9:3:3:1 ratio of law of Independent assortment can be affected by: Gene linkage Genetic drift Small population Gene duplication Gene linkage causes genes located close together on the same chromosome to be inherited together, disrupting independent assortment. 6 / 1806)Best description of the process of crossing over during meiosis: Separation of sister chromatids Duplication of chromosome Movement of chromosome to opposite poles Exchange of genes between non-sister chromatids Crossing over specifically refers to the exchange of genetic material between homologous (non-sister) chromatids during prophase I. 7 / 1807)Total number of linkage groups in a normal human is: 02 23 92 46 The number of linkage groups corresponds to the haploid number of chromosomes, which is 23 in humans. 8 / 1808)Nissl's granule is a specialized structure in neuron formed by modification of: Ribosome & Rough ER Golgi bodies & Smooth ER Peroxisome & Mitochondria Lysosome & Vacuole Nissl granules are largely composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum and free ribosomes, responsible for protein synthesis in neurons. 9 / 1809)What is the function of a centromere? To initiate DNA replication To hold sister chromatids together To protect the ends of chromosomes To carry genetic information The centromere is the constricted region of a chromosome that links sister chromatids tightly together until anaphase. 10 / 18010)All are the functions of lysosome EXCEPT: Removal of the waste Lipid synthesis Intra cellular digestion Autophagy Lipid synthesis is a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, not the lysosomes, which are involved purely in degradation. 11 / 18011)The first consequence of lymphatic blockage in tissues is: Drop in blood pressure Deficiency of oxygen Loss of nerve signals Excess fluid accumulation in tissue The lymphatic system drains interstitial fluid; blockage prevents this drainage, causing immediate fluid buildup known as edema. 12 / 18012)Which of the following is the auditory relay Centre and Centre that controls reflex movement of eyes? Medulla Midbrain Forebrain Cerebellum The midbrain contains structures (like the colliculi) that act as relay centers for auditory and visual reflexes. 13 / 18013)Which of the following is the correct pathway of nerve impulse? CNS -> Effectors -> Receptors Effectors -> Receptors -> CNS Receptors -> CNS -> Effectors Effectors -> CNS -> Receptors Sensory receptors detect a stimulus, send it to the Central Nervous System for processing, which then directs effectors to act. 14 / 18014)The neurotransmitters are secreted by the neuron from: Axon ends Nissl's granules Dendrite end Cell body Neurotransmitters are stored in synaptic vesicles and released from the axon terminals (axon ends) into the synaptic cleft. 15 / 18015)Hippocampus plays an important role in the: Formation of image on retina Formation of emotions Formation of long-term memory Formation of short-term memory The hippocampus is critically involved in the consolidation of information from short-term memory to long-term memory. 16 / 18016)Enzymes activity decreases at very low or high pH because: Enzymes become denatured Product formation increases Temperature becomes constant Substrate concentration increases Extreme pH levels alter the ionic bonds holding the enzyme's 3D structure together, causing it to denature and lose function. 17 / 18017)The complementary base pairing in DNA is important because it: Provides energy for all cell metabolism Maintains the tertiary structure of enzymes Enables protein to fold properly Allows DNA act as a genetic blueprint during replication Specific base pairing (A-T, C-G) ensures that DNA can be perfectly copied, acting as a reliable blueprint for cellular replication. 18 / 18018)A mature duplicated chromosome consists of: Two identical double helical DNA molecules A double helical DNA molecule distributed in both chromatids Two different double helical DNA molecules Histone chains wrapped around DNA core After replication, a chromosome consists of two sister chromatids, each containing an identical double-stranded DNA molecule. 19 / 18019)The most primitive respiratory process occurring in a living cell is: Lactic acid fermentation Glycolysis Krebs's cycle Alcoholic fermentation Glycolysis is a universal, oxygen-independent metabolic pathway found in almost all living organisms, indicating it is highly primitive. 20 / 18020)Receive, retain and nourish a fertilized ovum is the main function of: Uterus Oviduct Cervix Ovary The uterus is specialized with a vascular endometrium designed specifically to house and nourish a developing embryo. 21 / 18021)The primary function of larynx is: Voice production Gaseous exchange Humidifying air Filtering dust The larynx contains the vocal cords, making its primary anatomical function the production of sound or voice. 22 / 18022)During menstrual cycle, luteinizing hormone (LH) is secreted due to: Increase in FSH Decrease in Estrogen Decrease in FSH Environmental effect As FSH levels fall following follicular development, estrogen levels rise and trigger a positive feedback loop causing the LH surge. 23 / 18023)Left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected with each other by: A band of dendrites Dorsal and ventral nerve roots Corpus callosum Corpus luteum The corpus callosum is a thick bundle of nerve fibers that bridges the two cerebral hemispheres, allowing them to communicate. 24 / 18024)Which is the common feature between cardiac and smooth muscles? Branched Involuntary Voluntary Unbranched Unlike skeletal muscles, both cardiac and smooth muscles operate under the unconscious control of the autonomic nervous system. 25 / 18025)The joints which cause rotational movements are: Hinge Cartilage Ball and Socket Sutures Ball and socket joints, like the shoulder and hip, allow for multi-directional movement and rotation. 26 / 18026) Self-fertilization in plants through successive generations can lead to the development of: Variations in coming generation Hybrid breeds of plants Adaptation with their environment True breeding plants Successive self-fertilization eliminates heterozygosity, producing homozygous offspring known as true-breeding lines. 27 / 18027) Which part of the neuron typically receives incoming signals from other neurons? Dendrites Myelin sheath Synaptic knob Axon Dendrites are branching extensions of the neuron specifically adapted to receive electrochemical signals from other cells. 28 / 18028) Why thick filaments are unable to bind with thin filament in a relaxed muscle fiber? Tropomyosin blocks the troponin binding Tropomyosin blocks the myosin binding site Actin blocks the myosin binding site Troponin blocks the myosin binding site In a relaxed state, the protein tropomyosin physically covers the active binding sites on the actin filament, preventing myosin attachment. 29 / 18029) Which of the following best highlights the importance of proteins in immunity? They act as antibodies They are long term energy reserves They act as mechanical barrier for pathogens They act as receptors of pathogens Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are specialized proteins crucial to the adaptive immune system for identifying and neutralizing foreign objects. 30 / 18030) The secondary structure of proteins is stabilized by: Hydrophobic exclusion Disulfide bridges Hydrogen bonds Ionic bonds Alpha-helices and beta-pleated sheets, the core secondary structures, are maintained by hydrogen bonds between the peptide backbone. 31 / 18031) The following is an example of a globular protein: Collagen Hemoglobin Keratin Histone Hemoglobin is a classic highly folded, water-soluble globular protein that functions in oxygen transport. 32 / 18032) The process of osmoregulation refers to: The regulation of solute and water movement between an organism and its environment The filtration of blood to remove metabolic waste The secretion of hormones that control blood plasma The creation of an osmotic gradient in the kidney medulla Osmoregulation is the active regulation of the osmotic pressure of an organism's body fluids to maintain homeostasis. 33 / 18033) A baby girl is born with hemophilia, which is an X-linked recessive disorder. What are the most likely genotypes of her parents? Both are normal. The mother is a carrier and the father is normal. The mother is carrier and the father is hemophiliac The mother is hemophiliac and the father is normal. A girl (XX) needs two copies of the recessive gene. The father must have it (be hemophiliac) and the mother must at least be a carrier. 34 / 18034) Identify the most appropriate function of chromosomes: Energy production and storage Lipid metabolism and transport Storage of genetic Information Protein synthesis and regulation Chromosomes are long DNA molecules that serve as the primary storage units for an organism's genetic information. 35 / 18035) Enzymes belong to which class of biomolecules? Nucleic acids Carbohydrates Proteins Lipids Almost all known biological enzymes are complex, three-dimensional proteins. 36 / 18036) ______ arranges the DNA into the chromosomes in a eukaryotic cell. Hormones Histone Nucleosome Elastin Histones are the chief protein components of chromatin, acting as spools around which DNA winds to form structural units. 37 / 18037) The function of nucleolus is to make: Ribosomes rDNA Lysosomes Chromosomes The nucleolus is a distinct structure within the nucleus where ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is synthesized and assembled into ribosomes. 38 / 18038) Which of the following blood vessels have lowest blood velocity with correct reason? Arteries: Due to thick walls. Capillaries: due to highest overall cross-sectional area Veins: due to blood flow against the gravity Capillaries: Due to two-way blood flow in capillaries Velocity is inversely proportional to total cross-sectional area; capillaries collectively have the largest area, causing the slowest flow. 39 / 18039) An active athlete has more stamina of running compared to an officer of same age with physically inactive lifestyle. Which of the following organelles has greatly increased in the muscle cells of athlete? Nucleus Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) Mitochondria Golgi bodies Athletic training stimulates mitochondrial biogenesis in muscle cells to meet the higher ATP (energy) demands of endurance exercise. 40 / 18040) Once an action potential reaches the membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber, what is the first event that occurs in the contraction process? Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum Actin and myosin form a cross-bridge Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum ATP is hydrolyzed by troponin The electrical signal triggers voltage-gated channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release stored calcium ions into the cytosol. 41 / 18041) The pubic symphysis is a slightly moveable joint joined by which of the following tissue? Fibrocartilage Elastic cartilage Articular cartilage Costal cartilage The pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint composed of tough fibrocartilage, designed to resist compression and tension. 42 / 18042) In a pea plant seed color is determined by two alleles: Y (Yellow, dominant) and y (green recessive). Which parental cross would most likely result in offspring showing a 1:1 ratio of yellow to green seeds? YY x yy Yy x yy Yy x Yy Yy x YY A test cross between a heterozygote (Yy) and a homozygous recessive (yy) perfectly yields a 1:1 phenotypic ratio. 43 / 18043) Mendel crossed a plant with round yellow seeds (RRYY) and a plant with wrinkled green seeds (rryy), what was the phenotype of all F1 offspring? All wrinkled green All wrinkled yellow All round green All round yellow The RRYY parent provides 'RY' alleles and rryy provides 'ry'. All F1 offspring are RrYy, expressing the dominant round and yellow traits. 44 / 18044) In a normal 28 days menstrual cycle when would you expect the LH surge to occur? Days 7-10 Days 19-22 Days 11-14 Days 15-18 The luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, which triggers ovulation, typically peaks around day 13 or 14 of a standard 28-day cycle. 45 / 18045) Which property of water helps in moderating Earth's climate and maintaining stable temperature in aquatic environment? High surface tension Low viscosity High polarity High specific heat capacity Water's high specific heat capacity allows it to absorb and release large amounts of heat with minimal temperature change. 46 / 18046) Effect of increased substrate concentration on enzyme activity: Increase the rate of reaction in a straight diagonal line Have no effect on the reaction rate Decrease the rate of reaction Increase the reaction rate until all active sites are saturated Reaction rates increase with more substrate until the point of saturation, where every enzyme active site is constantly occupied. 47 / 18047) An oligosaccharide is made up of at least: two saccharide units more than ten saccharide units three to ten saccharide units ten saccharide units By biochemical definition, oligosaccharides are short chains starting from at least two up to about ten monosaccharide units linked together. 48 / 18048) Which statement best explains the difference between humoral and cell mediated response? Humoral immunity destroys viruses and cell mediated immunity destroys bacteria Humoral immunity is specific and cell mediated immunity is nonspecific Humoral immunity involves B-Lymphocytes and cell mediated immunity involves T-Lymphocytes Humoral immunity uses antibodies and cell does not involve Immune cells Humoral immunity relies on B-cells producing free-floating antibodies, whereas cell-mediated immunity relies on T-cells attacking infected cells. 49 / 18049) Which of the following is the correct higher (left) to lower (right) sequence of RNA with respect to their amount in the cell? mRNA - tRNA - rRNA rRNA - tRNA - mRNA rRNA - mRNA - tRNA tRNA - rRNA - mRNA Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) makes up ~80% of total RNA, followed by transfer RNA (tRNA) at ~15%, and messenger RNA (mRNA) at ~5%. 50 / 18050) A person in hot weather is unable to maintain body temperature. Which physiological process has failed? Shivering Vasodilation & sweating Renin secretion Vasoconstriction Vasodilation brings internal heat to the skin surface, and sweating utilizes evaporative cooling; failure of these causes overheating. 51 / 18051) The main idea in Darwin's Theory of 'Origin of species by natural selection' is: Inheritance of acquired traits Evolution occurs through gradual accumulation of adaptation through successive generations Use and disuse of organs Species never change Darwin's core thesis is that beneficial, naturally occurring variations accumulate over long periods, leading to the evolution of species. 52 / 18052) Which of the following is a key feature of RNA? Ribose and uracil Deoxyribose and thymine Ribose and thymine Double stranded and thymine Unlike DNA, RNA features a ribose sugar backbone and utilizes the nitrogenous base uracil instead of thymine. 53 / 18053) Which of the following types of RNA makeup the largest proportion of total cellular RNA? Ribosomal RNA Catalytic RNA (ribozyme) Messenger RNA Transfer RNA Because cells require massive numbers of ribosomes for protein synthesis, rRNA easily dominates the RNA proportion in a cell. 54 / 18054) The bacterium Treponema Pallidum is responsible for which sexually transmitted disease? Gonorrhea Syphilis Chlamydia Genital herpes Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium that acts as the direct infectious agent causing the disease syphilis. 55 / 18055) Tissue fluid in a lymphatic system is called as: Plasma Matrix Lymph Blood Once interstitial tissue fluid enters the sealed lymphatic vessels, its biochemical terminology changes to lymph. 56 / 18056) Which one of the following biomolecules is a polymer/polysaccharide? Sucrose Pentose Glycogen Lactose Glycogen is a complex, highly branched polysaccharide made entirely of glucose monomers, functioning as energy storage in animals. 57 / 18057) Olfactory receptors are the type of: thermoreceptors mechanoreceptors photoreceptors chemoreceptors Olfactory receptors detect distinct airborne chemical molecules, categorizing them biologically as chemoreceptors. 58 / 18058) Which of the following organisms eliminate nitrogenous waste mainly in the form of uric acid? Mammals Birds Freshwater Fish Amphibians Birds excrete uric acid to conserve massive amounts of water, as it precipitates into a paste and requires very little fluid to pass. 59 / 18059) Which of the following cells possess Nissl's granules? Nerve cells Platelets RBC WBC Nissl's granules are distinct structures of the rough endoplasmic reticulum found exclusively in the soma of nerve cells (neurons). 60 / 18060) Which part of human brain is involved maintaining the posture and balance of the body? Cerebellum Medulla oblongata Hypothalamus Cerebrum The cerebellum processes information from the inner ear and muscular proprioceptors to fine-tune and coordinate bodily balance and posture. 61 / 18061) Arthritis is: Herniation of intervertebral disc Inflammation of joints Fusion of vertebral joint Degeneration of bone The medical term arthritis directly translates to the painful swelling and inflammation of one or more articular joints. 62 / 18062) Which type of joint is present in pubis? Immoveable joints Cartilaginous joints Fibrous joints Freely moveable joints The two pubic bones are joined by the pubic symphysis, a pad of fibrocartilage, classifying it as a cartilaginous joint. 63 / 18063) Which type of neurons stimulate muscles to contract in a reflex arc? Motor neurons Sensory neurons Interneurons Afferent neurons Efferent, or motor neurons, carry the final action signal away from the central nervous system to the peripheral muscle effectors. 64 / 18064) Which of the following statements best compares cell division in prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells? Eukaryotes divide by budding; prokaryotes by mitosis Eukaryotes divide by mitosis; prokaryotes by binary fission Eukaryotes use binary fission; prokaryotes by meiosis Both use mitosis by cell division Prokaryotes lack a true nucleus and divide through simple binary fission, while eukaryotes utilize the complex process of mitosis. 65 / 18065) Which of the following best describes 'acquired characteristics' according to Lamarckism? Traits selected by nature Traits caused by mutation Traits inherited from parents Traits developed by use or disuse Lamarck erroneously proposed that physical traits enhanced or diminished during an organism's lifetime via use/disuse could be passed to offspring. 66 / 18066) According to Lock and Key model, the active site is regarded as: Flexible and non specific Rigid and specific Flexible and specific Rigid and non specific The historic Lock and Key model posits that the enzyme's active site is a rigid, inflexible structure that only fits a perfectly shaped substrate. 67 / 18067) Peptide bonds are important in protein because they: Hold R-groups Affect solubility Link amino acid help in releasing oxygen Peptide bonds are the covalent chemical links that connect the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amino group of the next. 68 / 18068) Why are retroviruses placed in a separate class of RNA viruses? They always infect animal cells only They use reverse transcriptase to make DNA from RNA They lack protein coats Their RNA acts directly as mRNA Retroviruses are unique because they possess reverse transcriptase, an enzyme that transcribes their RNA genome backward into host-compatible DNA. 69 / 18069) Reversible inhibitors differ from irreversible inhibitors because they: Change enzyme structure permanently Permanently inactivate the enzyme Binds permanently and cannot be removed Bind temporarily and can be removed Reversible inhibitors attach to enzymes using weak, non-covalent interactions, meaning they can easily detach and restore enzyme function. 70 / 18070) Which is an enzyme activator secreted by the intestinal mucosa? Amylase Lipase Pepsinogens Enterokinase Enterokinase is released by the duodenal mucosa to activate trypsinogen into trypsin, initiating a cascade of digestive enzyme activation. 71 / 18071) In which of the following combination, both components have Hyaline cartilage? Epiglottis & intervertebral disc Nose & pinna Trachea & intervertebral disc Nose & trachea Both the respiratory rings of the trachea and the structural framework of the external nose are composed of glassy hyaline cartilage. 72 / 18072) According to Lamarck, the evolution of long necks in giraffes is explained by: Natural selection Stretching of necks over generations Genetic mutation Survival of the fittest Lamarck argued giraffes stretched their necks to reach high leaves over their lifetimes, and passed this acquired length down to descendants. 73 / 18073) The process of spermatogenesis occurs in which part of the male reproductive system? Scrotum Vas deferens Seminiferous tubules Epididymis The seminiferous tubules within the testes are the specific, highly coiled structures where sperm cell generation (spermatogenesis) actively occurs. 74 / 18074) Which layer of uterus nourishes the embryo after Implantation? Perimetrium Myometrium Cervical epithelium Endometrium The endometrium is the inner, highly vascularized glandular lining of the uterus that the embryo embeds into for physiological support. 75 / 18075) The main role of mRNA during protein synthesis is to: provide platform for proteins synthesis stabilize ribosome deliver amino acids Carry genetic information for protein synthesis Messenger RNA serves as the direct transcript of a DNA gene, carrying the coding sequence required to build a specific protein. 76 / 18076) Glycoproteins are formed as a result of the combination of: Fatty acids and carbohydrates Nucleic acid and proteins Carbohydrates and proteins Lipids and proteins Glycoproteins are conjugated molecules consisting of short carbohydrate (glyco) chains covalently bound to a polypeptide (protein) backbone. 77 / 18077) A student observed a boundary in both plant and animal cells that controls entry and exit of substances. Which of the following structures is likely being observed? Golgi apparatus Plasma membrane Mitochondria Cell wall The plasma membrane is the universal, selectively permeable lipid bilayer found in all cells that manages cellular transport. 78 / 18078) If a normal person marries with colour blind female what will be the possibility of normal male child: 25% 0% 50% 75% Male children inherit their single X chromosome from their mother; since she is colorblind (XcXc), all sons will inevitably inherit the condition (0% normal). 79 / 18079) Which of the following characters is shared by both skeletal and cardiac muscles? Intercalated discs Involuntary control Presence of Striation Multinucleated fibers Under microscopic examination, both skeletal and cardiac muscle tissues exhibit distinct transverse banding patterns known as striations. 80 / 18080) Which of the following muscle types are involuntary in action? Smooth muscle only Cardiac and smooth Skeletal and smooth Skeletal and cardiac Skeletal muscle is the only voluntary muscle type; both cardiac (heart) and smooth (visceral) muscles contract automatically without conscious thought. 81 / 18081) In which of the following combinations, both components have non-striated muscle fibers? Heart & lungs Intestine & blood vessels Intestine & biceps Stomach & heart Smooth (non-striated) muscle tissue is found lining the hollow walls of the gastrointestinal tract (intestine) and vascular system (blood vessels). 82 / 18082) Value of R gas constant in J mol K is: 62400 0.821 8.314 62.4 The universal gas constant (R) in SI units is mathematically derived as 8.314 J/(mol·K). 83 / 18083) Which of the following best explains why phenol reacts with aqueous NaOH, but alcohols do not? Phenol form hydrogen bonding that facilitates ionization. Phenol is weakly acidic due to resonance stabilization of phenoxide ion. Alcohols contain a strong O-H bond that cannot be broken by weak bases. Phenol has a lower boiling point than alcohol. Phenol acts as a weak acid because the conjugate base (phenoxide ion) is highly stabilized by delocalizing its negative charge around the aromatic benzene ring. 84 / 18084) In propene pi-bond is formed by sideway overlap of: sp3 hybrid orbitals s-orbitals p-orbitals sp2 hybrid orbitals Pi (π) bonds are exclusively formed by the parallel (sideways) overlap of unhybridized p-orbitals adjacent to each other. 85 / 18085) An enzyme used to decompose the lipids into fatty acids in our alimentary canal is Lipase Protease Amylase Urease Lipase is the primary digestive enzyme responsible for catalyzing the breakdown of dietary lipids into glycerol and fatty acids. 86 / 18086) Molecules having one lone pair and three bond pairs have geometrical shape Trigonal pyramidal Trigonal planner Bent or angular Trigonal According to VSEPR theory, a central atom with 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair (like Ammonia, NH3) adopts a trigonal pyramidal geometry due to lone pair-bond pair repulsion. 87 / 18087) Conversion of dihaloalkane into alkyne does not involve Base Addition Elimination Heat Converting a dihaloalkane to an alkyne is a double dehydrohalogenation process, which is an elimination reaction requiring a strong base and heat. It does not involve addition. 88 / 18088) Majority of reactions taking place at ordinary temperatures with -ΔΗ are Exothermic Endothermic Thermally unstable Reversible A negative enthalpy change (-ΔH) indicates that the system is releasing heat to the surroundings, which is the defining characteristic of an exothermic reaction. 89 / 18089) Which one of the following is a coinage metal Hg Pd Cu Cd Group 11 elements are known as coinage metals because they were historically used to make coins. These include Copper (Cu), Silver (Ag), and Gold (Au). 90 / 18090) In the reaction $2H_2 + O_2 \rightarrow 2H_2O$, if 2g of $H_2$ reacts with 32g of $O_2$ to produce 14g of water, what is the percentage yield? ($H_2=2\text{ g/mol}$, $O_2=32\text{ g/mol}$, $H_2O=18\text{ g/mol}$) 87.5% 63.6% 77.8% 92.5% 2g of H2 (1 mole) is the limiting reactant and will theoretically yield 1 mole of H2O (18g). Percentage yield = (Actual Yield / Theoretical Yield) * 100 = (14 / 18) * 100 = 77.8%. 91 / 18091) The minimum energy required to initiate a chemical reaction through collision is called: Average energy Bond energy Enthalpy Activation energy Activation energy represents the threshold energy barrier that reactant molecules must overcome during a collision to successfully transform into products. 92 / 18092) If elements X, Y, and Z combine in a molar ratio of 1:2:2 respectively, what is their possible molecular formula? X2YZ XY2Z2 XYZ2 XY2Z The molar ratio dictates the subscripts of the elements in the empirical/molecular formula, aligning directly with XY2Z2. 93 / 18093) Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents an electron in a 3d orbital? n=3, l=0, m=0, s=-1/2 n=1, l=0, m=0, s=+1/2 n=3, l=2, m=0, s=+1/2 n=2, l=1, m=0, s=+1/2 For an electron in a 3d orbital, the principal quantum number (n) must be 3, and the azimuthal quantum number (l) for any d-orbital is always 2. 94 / 18094) For the reaction $2A + B \rightarrow 3C + D$, which of the following expressions does NOT correctly represent the rate of reaction? -1/3 d[C]/dt d[D]/dt -d[B]/dt -1/2 d[A]/dt The rate of appearance of products must be positive. Option D contains a negative sign (-1/3 d[C]/dt) for a product, which incorrectly implies it is disappearing. 95 / 18095) What is the correct order of ease of discharge of the following ions at the cathode during electrolysis? H+ > Cu2+ > Ag+ H+ > Ag+ > Cu2+ Ag+ > Cu2+ > H+ H+ > Cu2+ = Ag+ Ions with higher standard reduction potentials are discharged more readily at the cathode. Ag+ (+0.80V) > Cu2+ (+0.34V) > H+ (0.00V). 96 / 18096) Acetaldehyde undergoes oxidation to produce acetic acid, in this reaction oxidizing agent used is: NaBH4 K2Cr2O7 LiAlH4 HI Potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7), usually acidified, is a strong oxidizing agent capable of oxidizing aldehydes into their corresponding carboxylic acids. 97 / 18097) Which one of the following has higher vapour pressure? Benzene acetone acetaldehyde Isopentane Isopentane has the weakest intermolecular forces (only London dispersion forces) compared to the others, giving it the lowest boiling point and highest vapor pressure. 98 / 18098) Terminal alkynes show acidic character due to: Terminal carbon atoms show hydrogen bonding. Terminal carbon atoms are sp3 hybridized. Terminal carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized. Terminal carbon atoms are sp hybridized. In terminal alkynes, the carbon is sp hybridized. The high s-character (50%) pulls electron density closer to the nucleus, making the attached hydrogen weakly acidic. 99 / 18099) Fischer ESTERIFICATION is which type of reaction: Dehydrogenation Condensation Elimination Substitution Fischer esterification reacts a carboxylic acid and an alcohol to form an ester and water. The elimination of a small molecule (water) categorizes it as a condensation reaction. 100 / 180100) Shape of orbital is determined by quantum number: m l s n The azimuthal or angular momentum quantum number (l) directly determines the 3D shape of the atomic orbital (e.g., spherical for s, dumbbell for p). 101 / 180101) The theories which explain the formation of sigma and pi bond are EXCEPT: CFT VSEPR VBT MOT Crystal Field Theory (CFT) explains the breaking of d-orbital degeneracies in transition metal complexes, not the overlap mechanisms of sigma and pi bonding. 102 / 180102) The value of Planck's constant is: 6.6262 x 10^34 J.sec 6.6262 x 10^-32 J.sec 6.6262 x 10^-30 J.sec 6.6262 x 10^-34 J.sec Planck's constant (h) is a fundamental physical constant with an accepted SI value of approximately 6.626 × 10^-34 Joule-seconds. 103 / 180103) Final equation for the representation of rate of reaction in concentration is called Rate law Reaction rate Reaction order Rate constant The mathematical expression that links the reaction rate to the concentrations of the reactants raised to appropriate powers is known as the Rate Law. 104 / 180104) Poly vinyl chloride (PVC) is the type of? Thermoplastic polymer Homopolymer Thermosetting polymer Copolymer PVC can be repeatedly melted, reshaped, and cooled without undergoing chemical degradation, making it a classic thermoplastic polymer. 105 / 180105) Which of the following is true about pressure for an ideal gas at $-273^{\circ}C$? p=0 atm P=1atm P=2atm P=3atm According to Charles's and Gay-Lussac's laws, at absolute zero (-273.15 °C), the kinetic energy of an ideal gas drops to zero, yielding theoretically zero volume and pressure. 106 / 180106) Which of the following is a basic buffer? NH4OH/NH4Cl H2CO3/NaHCO3 NaOH/HCl NaOH/NaCl A basic buffer is composed of a weak base and its salt with a strong acid. NH4OH (weak base) and NH4Cl (its salt) fulfill this requirement perfectly. 107 / 180107) What happens when HCl is added to ammonium hydroxide and ammonium chloride buffer? more ammonium hydroxide is formed no effect on equilibrium reaction will move forward reaction will move reverse The added H+ ions from HCl are neutralized by the OH- in the buffer, causing the equilibrium of the weak base (NH4OH) to shift forward to replace the lost OH- ions. 108 / 180108) What is general requirement for free radical substitution reaction of ethane and halogen? low temperature low pressure heat and UV light high pressure Free radical halogenation requires high energy to undergo the homolytic fission of the halogen bond, which is typically provided by UV light or high heat. 109 / 180109) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of benzene? Stability to follow Huckle rule Aromaticity High reactivity Due to extensive resonance delocalization of its pi electrons, benzene is exceptionally stable and exhibits unusually low reactivity toward addition reactions. 110 / 180110) Correct arrangement of orbital according to size of hybridized orbitals? sp2 > sp > sp3 sp3 > sp > sp2 sp > sp2 > sp3 sp3 > sp2 > sp The size of a hybrid orbital increases as the p-character increases. Therefore, the size order is sp3 (75% p) > sp2 (66% p) > sp (50% p). 111 / 180111) Consider the equation $2H_2 + O_2 \rightarrow 2H_2O$, what volume of hydrogen gas is required to produce 1 mol of water at standard temperature & pressure? 22.4 dm³ 10 dm³ 58 dm³ 11.2 dm³ The stoichiometry shows 1 mole of H2 produces 1 mole of H2O. At STP, 1 mole of any ideal gas occupies exactly 22.4 dm³. 112 / 180112) A chemical reaction has a theoretical yield of 25 g, but only 20 g of product was obtained. What is the percentage yield of the reaction? 45% 25% 80% 20% Percentage yield is calculated as (Actual Yield / Theoretical Yield) × 100. So, (20 / 25) × 100 = 80%. 113 / 180113) Which of the following situations most clearly demonstrates a characteristic of a Redox reaction? Ethanol evaporating at room temperature Hydrogen gas reacting with chlorine to form hydrogen chloride gas Water boiling to steam Sodium chloride dissolving in water In the reaction between H2 and Cl2, hydrogen undergoes oxidation (loses electrons) and chlorine undergoes reduction (gains electrons), making it a true redox reaction. 114 / 180114) If 100 KJ of heat is absorbed by the system and 40 KJ of work is done on the system what is the change of Internal energy? -140 KJ +60 KJ -60 KJ + 140 KJ According to the first law of thermodynamics, ΔE = q + w. Since heat is absorbed (+100) and work is done ON the system (+40), ΔE = 100 + 40 = +140 KJ. 115 / 180115) Number of unpaired electrons present in the ground state of $Fe^{3+}$ are (Atomic number of Fe=26). Four Three Five Six Neutral Fe is [Ar] 4s2 3d6. When forming Fe3+, it loses the two 4s electrons and one 3d electron, leaving [Ar] 3d5. These 5 electrons occupy 5 degenerate d-orbitals singly, resulting in 5 unpaired electrons. 116 / 180116) If % yield and actual yield is 80 and 20g respectively, what will be theoretical yield? 40g 20g 30g 25g Using the formula % Yield = (Actual / Theoretical) * 100. Rearranging gives Theoretical = Actual / (% Yield as decimal) = 20 / 0.80 = 25g. 117 / 180117) Which of the following best identifies the redox reaction: transfer of electron exchange of ions absorption of light transfer of proton A redox (reduction-oxidation) reaction is fundamentally defined by the transfer of electrons between interacting chemical species. 118 / 180118) Methanol is produced by reduction of Acetaldehyde Propanal Formaldehyde Propanone Reducing formaldehyde (methanal), an aldehyde with one carbon atom, yields the corresponding primary alcohol, which is methanol. 119 / 180119) IUPAC name of (CH3)3 CCH2 Br is 1-bromo-2,2,2-trimethylethane 1-bromopentane 1-bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane 2-bromopentane The longest carbon chain containing the substituent has 3 carbons (propane). There is a bromine atom on carbon 1, and two methyl groups on carbon 2, yielding 1-bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane. 120 / 180120) Which one shows anisotropic behavior? Gemstone Coke Graphite Wood Graphite is a crystalline solid with a layered structure, which causes its physical properties (like electrical conductivity) to vary depending on the direction of measurement (anisotropy). 121 / 180121) In a unit cell of a crystal lattice the angle β is between faces: b and c not specified a and b c and a By crystallographic convention, the angle α is between axes b and c, β is between a and c, and γ is between a and b. 122 / 180122) Pick the crystalline solid: Ceramics Cement Concrete Copper Copper is an elemental metal featuring a highly ordered, repeating lattice structure, classifying it strictly as a crystalline solid. 123 / 180123) Number of unpaired electrons in Boron in ground state is/are: 3 2 1 4 Boron (atomic number 5) has the electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p1. The single electron in the 2p subshell is unpaired. 124 / 180124) Chlorination of benzene in the presence of Iron (III) chloride involves Electrophilic addition Electrophilic Substitution Free radical halogenation Free radical Substitution Iron(III) chloride acts as a Lewis acid catalyst to generate the powerful chloronium electrophile (Cl+), which then substitutes a hydrogen on the aromatic ring. 125 / 180125) The element with smallest value of Ionization energy is Be Ba Al Ca Ionization energy decreases descending a group due to increased atomic radius and electron shielding. As Barium (Ba) is at the bottom of Group 2, it has the lowest ionization energy among the choices. 126 / 180126) Carboxylic acid reacts with ammonia to form ammonium salts which on heating produces Carbonates Amide Alkane Ester Heating the ammonium salt of a carboxylic acid drives off a water molecule (dehydration), resulting in the formation of an acid amide. 127 / 180127) If P is the momentum of an object and m is its mass, then its kinetic energy is: 1/2 pm^2 P/2m 1/2 P^2m P^2/2m Kinetic energy (KE) is 1/2 * m * v^2. Since momentum P = m * v, substituting v = P/m gives KE = 1/2 * m * (P/m)^2 = P^2 / 2m. 128 / 180128) The electric field at a point due to two equal and opposite charges is 100 N/C. If the magnitude of each charge is doubled then the electric field at that point becomes: 200 N/C 400 N/C 50 N/C 100 N/C Electric field intensity is directly proportional to the magnitude of the source charges (E = kq/r^2). Doubling the charge will exactly double the electric field, making it 200 N/C. (Note: The provided answer key states option 4, which would apply to Force, but for Electric Field, it scales linearly). 129 / 180129) If a plastic sheet of relative permittivity 2.5 is inserted between two-point charges placed in vacuum, then the electrostatic force between them Decreases by a factor of 2.5 Increases by a factor of 5 Increases by a factor of 2.5 Decreases by a factor of 5 Coulomb's electrostatic force is inversely proportional to the relative permittivity (dielectric constant) of the medium. Thus, the force decreases by a factor of 2.5. 130 / 180130) After 3 half-lives, the remaining fraction of a radioactive sample is: 1/4 1/8 1/16 1/2 The fraction of a radioactive substance remaining after n half-lives is given by (1/2)^n. For 3 half-lives, it is (1/2)^3 = 1/8. 131 / 180131) If the horizontal range of a projectile becomes half of its maximum possible horizontal range, the probable angle of projection is; 15° 60° 30° 45° Maximum range occurs at 45° where sin(2θ) = 1. If the range is halved, sin(2θ) = 0.5. This means 2θ = 30°, which yields a projection angle of 15°. 132 / 180132) In an ideal transformer, If the primary voltage is doubled and the turns ratio remains the same, what happens to the secondary current? Becomes four times Doubles Remains the same Halves With a constant turns ratio, doubling the primary voltage will double the secondary voltage. Assuming the secondary load (resistance) is unchanged, Ohm's law (V=IR) states the current will also double. 133 / 180133) An angular displacement of 90° is equal to: One half revolution One-fourth revolution One complete revolution One-third revolution One complete revolution is 360°. Therefore, 90° is 90/360 = 1/4 of a revolution. 134 / 180134) The time in which half of the given number of radioactive nuclei decay is known as 2/3 life of radioactive element. 1/2 life of radioactive element. 2/5 life of radioactive element. 1/4 life of radioactive element. By standard definition, the half-life (1/2 life) is the exact duration required for exactly half of the radioactive nuclei in a sample to undergo decay. 135 / 180135) Earth receives large amount of energy directly from: Water Moon Sun Wind The Sun is the primary, direct source of the vast majority of the thermal and radiant energy received by the Earth. 136 / 180136) A phase difference of 90° is equal to: 2π radians π/2 radians π radians π/4 radians Since a full circle of 360° equals 2π radians, 90° (which is a quarter of a circle) equals 2π/4, which simplifies to π/2 radians. 137 / 180137) The reciprocal of the resistivity of a material is called its: reactance conductivity impedance admittance Electrical conductivity (σ) is defined mathematically as the exact inverse or reciprocal of electrical resistivity (ρ). 138 / 180138) The Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum appears in the Visible region Ultraviolet region Infrared region X-ray region The Balmer series involves electron transitions down to the n=2 energy level, emitting photons whose wavelengths fall directly into the visible light spectrum. 139 / 180139) A ball is thrown into the air with certain velocity v making an angle θ with horizontal. If air resistance is neglected, then at maximum height its velocity is: Equal to zero Half of initial velocity Equal to initial velocity Minimum but not zero At the maximum height, the vertical component of velocity becomes zero, but the horizontal component (v*cosθ) remains constant. Therefore, the total velocity is at its minimum, but not zero. 140 / 180140) A canon is placed on a smooth surface. When it fires a shell, the canon moves backward, this recoil occurs due to: Law of conservation of energy Newton's first law of motion Backward thrust of the gases Newton's third law of motion The firing exerts a forward force on the shell (action), which creates an equal and opposite backward force on the cannon (reaction), demonstrating Newton's Third Law and momentum conservation. 141 / 180141) If the surface charge density of an infinite sheet increases by 25%, the electric field intensity: Increases by 25% Remains the same Increases by 50% Decreases by 25% The electric field produced by an infinite sheet of charge is directly proportional to its surface charge density (E = σ / 2ε0). A 25% increase in σ results in a 25% increase in E. 142 / 180142) An incompressible fluid flows through a pipe that becomes narrower in one section. The fluid speed increases in that region to maintain: constant volume constant mass flow rate constant energy Constant pressure According to the Equation of Continuity (A1V1 = A2V2), speed increases in narrower sections specifically to maintain a constant mass flow rate (and volume flow rate) throughout the pipe. 143 / 180143) In a pipe of varying cross-section as fluid enters the narrower region, it exhibits: high velocity, high pressure low velocity, high pressure low velocity, low pressure high velocity, low pressure According to Bernoulli's principle, as the fluid's velocity increases in the narrower region (due to continuity), its internal pressure must simultaneously decrease to conserve energy. 144 / 180144) The curved shape of an airplane wing causes air to move faster over the top surface. This leads to: greater pressure on the top zero pressure above the wing equal pressure on both sides lower pressure on the top Faster-moving air over the curved top of the wing creates a region of lower pressure compared to the bottom, generating the upward aerodynamic force known as lift. 145 / 180145) The protons in the nucleus of an atom DO NOT exit due to Electromagnetic force Strong Nuclear Force Weak Nuclear Force Gravitational Force The Strong Nuclear Force provides the immense attractive binding energy required to overcome the electromagnetic repulsion between positively charged protons at extreme short ranges. 146 / 180146) Mechanical waves cannot travel through outer space because have low speed in vacuum disperse in space due to long wavelength lose transmission without interacting particles lose frequency in the absence of air Mechanical waves, like sound, strictly require a physical medium of interacting particles (solid, liquid, or gas) to transmit their energy, which a vacuum lacks. 147 / 180147) Terminal voltage of a cell equals its EMF only Load resistance is zero Internal resistance is infinite No current flows Current is maximum Terminal voltage (Vt = EMF - Ir). The terminal voltage will only be perfectly equal to the Electromotive Force (EMF) in an open circuit where current (I) is zero. 148 / 180148) A loop moves toward a stationary magnet. The induced current will: try to stop the approach become alternating enhance the motion become zero According to Lenz's Law, an induced current will always flow in a direction that produces a magnetic field opposing the change (the approach) that originally created it. 149 / 180149) The energy of a Simple Harmonic oscillation depends upon the wavelength amplitude frequency time period The total mechanical energy in a Simple Harmonic Oscillator is directly proportional to the square of its maximum displacement (amplitude), given by E = 1/2 * k * A^2. 150 / 180150) The wave that has the highest frequency & penetrating power is Microwaves Ultraviolet ray Gamma rays X-rays On the electromagnetic spectrum, Gamma rays possess the shortest wavelengths, generating the highest frequencies and correspondingly the most extreme penetrating energy. 151 / 180151) According to First law of thermodynamics when heat flows into a system and no work is done the internal energy of the system must Becomes zero Remains constant Decrease Increase The First Law states ΔU = Q - W. If W (work done) is zero, and Q (heat) is positive because it enters the system, the internal energy (ΔU) must increase. 152 / 180152) If the length of the conductor is made 4 times its original length, its resistance becomes half quarter zero 4 times Resistance is directly proportional to the length of a conductor (R = ρL/A). Increasing the length by a factor of 4 will increase the total resistance by 4 times. 153 / 180153) The unit of temperature coefficient of resistivity is 1/C 1/K 1/Ω 1/A The temperature coefficient defines the fractional change in resistivity per degree of temperature change, giving it SI units of reciprocal Kelvin (1/K or K^-1). 154 / 180154) The work done by the gravitational force on an object as it moves from a reference level to a higher point is: Zero Depends on the path taken Always positive Always negative Gravity always pulls downward. When an object is lifted to a higher point, the displacement is opposite to the direction of the gravitational force, resulting in negative work. 155 / 180155) If two speakers emit sound at same frequency and phase, maximum loudness occurs when: Path difference = λ/2 Path difference = λ Path difference = 3λ/4 Path difference = λ/4 Maximum loudness relies on constructive interference, which happens exclusively when the path difference between two coherent waves is a full integer multiple of the wavelength (nλ). 156 / 180156) When an object attains terminal velocity, its acceleration is: 9.8 m/s² Depends on mass 1 m/s² Zero Terminal velocity is reached when upward drag forces perfectly balance downward gravitational forces. Net force becomes zero, making acceleration zero. 157 / 180157) A 0.5 kg ball moving at 6 m/s has kinetic energy 18 J 6 J 3 J 9 J Using the kinetic energy formula KE = 1/2 * m * v^2: KE = 1/2 * 0.5 kg * (6 m/s)^2 = 0.25 * 36 = 9 Joules. 158 / 180158) A fluid is flowing through a tube, to undergo transition from laminar to turbulent flow it's velocity must be: equal to critical velocity increasing gradually but less than critical vel greater than critical velocity Slightly less than critical velocity Critical velocity is the exact threshold speed. Once a fluid's velocity exceeds this critical limit, smooth laminar flow disrupts into chaotic turbulent flow. 159 / 180159) For two equal positive charges, the electric field is weakest? Midway between them Close to either charge Along the perpendicular bisector At infinity Exactly midway between two identical charges, the electric field vectors from each charge are equal in magnitude but point in opposite directions, perfectly canceling out to zero. 160 / 180160) A projectile is launched in air with certain angle; its velocity is maximum at: At all points Between launching and highest point Highest point Point of projection A projectile is moving fastest right as it is launched (point of projection) and right before it hits the ground, as kinetic energy converts to potential energy during the ascent. 161 / 180161) If the distance between two charges is halved and magnitude of charges are also doubled, then the force between these charges becomes: four times eight times sixteen times two times According to Coulomb's Law F = k(q1*q2)/r^2. Doubling both charges multiplies force by 4. Halving the distance divides the denominator by 4, multiplying the force by another 4. 4 * 4 = 16 times greater. 162 / 180162) If a body having mass m1 (2 kg), moving with 5 m/s approaches another mass, m2 (3 kg) with speed of 1 m/s in same direction, relative speed of approach is 4 m/s. Relative speed of separation after collision will be: 6 m/s depends on masses 2 m/s 4 m/s Assuming this is an elastic collision (the standard assumption when these specifics are provided in foundational physics), the relative speed of separation is always equal to the relative speed of approach. 163 / 180163) Which of the following sentences has correct subject verb agreement? The teacher give the students homework. The teachers gives the student homework. The teachers given the student homework. The teacher gives the students homework. The singular subject 'teacher' correctly pairs with the singular verb 'gives'. 164 / 180164) The keys were found ___ the drawer where you left them last week. in under on beside The preposition 'in' is correctly used to indicate that the keys were enclosed inside the space of the drawer. 165 / 180165) Identify the sentence among of the following, which is punctuated correctly? The teaching staff asked the principal: "What time would the meeting start"? The teaching staff asked the principal what time the meeting would start. The teaching staff asked the principal; "What time would the meeting start?" The teaching staff asked the principal, "What time would the meeting start?" Direct speech is properly punctuated with a comma before the opening quotation mark, and the question mark goes inside the closing quotation marks. 166 / 180166) "She was elated when she got first position in exams." What is the meaning of "elated" In this sentence? Worried Mad Disappointed Excited In this context, 'elated' means extremely happy, thrilled, or excited about the achievement. 167 / 180167) The board of directors expressed, ___ disappointment with the financial results. one's their his or her its The phrase 'board of directors' functions as a collective noun representing a single entity here, thus it takes the singular possessive pronoun 'its'. 168 / 180168) It rained all night; ___ the roads were flooded in the morning. as a result in contrast instead similarly The phrase 'as a result' logically connects the cause (raining all night) with its direct effect (flooded roads). 169 / 180169) The manager accepted the cashier's ___ for coming late. expinasion expalanation explaination explanation 'Explanation' is the correct English spelling of the word. 170 / 180170) The writer has unearthed serious irregularities in the entire project. The word 'unearthed' In this sentence means mentioned written exposed stated To 'unearth' means to discover, bring to light, or reveal something hidden, which makes 'exposed' the most accurate synonym. 171 / 180171) Identify the sentence with no spelling error: Imtiaz invited me on a dinner party at resturant. Imtiaz invited me on a diner party at restaurant. Imtiaz invited me on a dinnar party at restaurent. Imtiaz invited me on a dinner party at restaurant. Option A is the only sentence where both 'dinner' and 'restaurant' are spelled correctly. 172 / 180172) What will come next? 1, 4, 2, 5, 3, 6, 4, 7, ? 5 8 7 6 The sequence follows an alternating pattern of adding 3 and subtracting 2: 1(+3)=4, 4(-2)=2, 2(+3)=5, 5(-2)=3, 3(+3)=6, 6(-2)=4, 4(+3)=7. The next operation is 7(-2)=5. 173 / 180173) All daffodils are plants. All plants are living things. Some living things are real. Conclusions: I. All daffodils are living things. II. Some living things are flowers. III. All daffodils are real. Which conclusions follow? Only I All follow Only II and III Only I and II If all daffodils are plants, and all plants are living things, we can logically deduce that all daffodils are living things (Conclusion I). The premises do not mention 'flowers' (Conclusion II is invalid), and while some living things are real, we cannot guarantee that all daffodils fall into that specific 'real' subset (Conclusion III is invalid). 174 / 180174) One apple pie has 10 slices, and each apple pie feeds five people. Henry is having a party with 200 people. How many slices of pie does he need? 200 400 100 50 If one pie has 10 slices and feeds 5 people, each person eats 2 slices (10 / 5 = 2). To feed 200 people, Henry will need 200 * 2 = 400 slices of pie. 175 / 180175) How many trees are in the orchard? Which of the statements below are needed to sufficiently answer this question? i. Ibrahim is a farmer and looks after half of the trees in the orchard. ii. 300 trees in the orchard are under Ibrahim's care. neither i or ii are sufficient II is enough both I and II are needed I is enough Statement (i) provides the fraction of trees Ibrahim cares for (half), but no numbers. Statement (ii) provides a number (300) but no context of the total. Only by combining both statements can you determine the total number of trees is 600 (300 * 2). 176 / 180176) P and Q are M's parents. M and N are siblings. Q is N's mother. What is P to M? Father Mother Brother Sister P and Q are the parents of both M and N (since they are siblings). If Q is identified as the mother, then the other parent, P, must be the father. 177 / 180177) Asad bought 50 packets of biscuits for the price of Rs. 500; whereas Anum bought 25 packets of chips for the price of Rs.1000. While comparing the prices of packets of biscuits and packet of chips, which of the following statements is correct? Price of 1 packet of biscuits is equal to the price of 2 packets of chips Price of 1 packet of biscuits is equal to the price of 4 packets of chips Price of 4 packets of biscuits is equal to the price of 1 packet of chips Price of 2 packets of biscuits is equal to the price of 1 packet of chips One packet of biscuits costs Rs. 10 (500 / 50). One packet of chips costs Rs. 40 (1000 / 25). Therefore, it takes 4 packets of biscuits (4 * Rs. 10) to equal the price of 1 packet of chips (Rs. 40). 178 / 180178) The virus spreads rapidly in the town. It infected the people - First day: 8, Second day: 16, Third day: 32. What will the number of people infected on the next day? 74 people 56 people 64 people 44 people The number of infected people doubles each day (8 * 2 = 16; 16 * 2 = 32). Following this geometric progression, the fourth day will have 32 * 2 = 64 infections. 179 / 180179) Which of the following is a result or design that could cause an accident in the workplace? Insufficient lighting Slippery surfaces Equipment failure Unplanned workspace layout The question specifically asks for a 'design' issue. An unplanned workspace layout is a fundamental flaw in environmental design that structurally increases the risk of accidents. 180 / 180180) Which of the following is the main cause of accidents involving equipment? Overconfidence Poor training Insufficient maintenance Fatigue While human error plays a role, the primary direct cause of mechanical equipment failure leading to accidents is typically a lack of proper, scheduled maintenance. Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz