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Szabmu 2023 1 / 1991) Non protein but inorganic detachable co-factor is called: Apoenzyme Co-enzyme Activator Prosthetic group Inorganic metal ions that temporarily bind to an enzyme to assist in its catalytic function are known as activators. 2 / 1992) Lock and Key Model for enzyme action proposed by Emil Fischer suggests that: An enzyme can catalyze variety of reactions Enzymes are unbiased for the substrate Enzymes are restricted to one reaction type Enzymes can modify their active sites The Lock and Key model implies strict specificity, meaning an enzyme's active site is rigidly shaped to fit only one specific substrate and catalyze one specific reaction type. 3 / 1993) Enzymes work by lowering the: Heat energy Activation energy Kinetic energy Potential energy Enzymes act as biological catalysts by lowering the activation energy required for a chemical reaction to proceed. 4 / 1994) The frequency of a mutant gene in a population would be likely to be increased if: The gene were sex linked The gene were selectively advantageous The population increase The gene were dominant Natural selection favors alleles that provide a survival or reproductive advantage, increasing their frequency in the population over time. 5 / 1995) Which statement is not correct for the Darwin's theory of natural selection? The fit individuals leave more off springs into their environment The unequal ability of individuals to survive and reproduce will lead to a gradual Survival in the struggle for existence is random Accumulation over the generations thus leading to the evolution of a new species Darwin's theory emphasizes that survival is NOT random; it depends heavily on the specific traits and adaptations an organism possesses. 6 / 1996) A general formula is derived by one of the following scientist for calculating the frequencies of alleles and genotypes in population at equilibrium: Lamarck Hardy Weinberg Darwin Linnaeus The Hardy-Weinberg principle provides the mathematical equation ($p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1$) to calculate allele and genotype frequencies in a stable population. 7 / 1997) When humans purposefully apply selection pressure to populations, the process is known as: Evolution Natural selection Artificial selection Genetic drift Artificial selection (or selective breeding) occurs when humans intervene to breed organisms with specific desirable traits. 8 / 1998) Which may NOT be a possible action of interferons? Activate immune cells Belongs to cytokines Secrete interleukin Activate natural killer cells Interferons are signaling proteins (cytokines) that activate other immune cells, but they do not themselves secrete interleukins (cells do). 9 / 1999) Which Proteolytic enzyme is NOT secreted in inactive form? Erypsin Pepsin Trypsin Chymotrypsin Erypsin is a mixture of peptidases found in intestinal juices that is active upon secretion, unlike pepsin or trypsin which are secreted as zymogens. 10 / 19910) In human heart, the left atrium receives: The Coronary Sinus The Superior Vena Cava The Inferior Vena Cava The four Pulmonary Veins Oxygenated blood returns from the lungs and enters the left atrium of the heart via the four pulmonary veins. 11 / 19911) Choose the correct pathway for the flow of blood: Capillaries --- throughfare channel --- metarterioles Metarterioles --- arterioles --- throughfare channels --- capillaries Throughfare channel --- metarterioles --- capillaries Arterioles -- metarterioles --- thoroughfare channel --- capillaries Blood flows from arterioles into metarterioles, then into thoroughfare channels, which finally supply the capillary beds. 12 / 19912) Regarding structure of the human heart, Chordae tendinae are present in: Aortic valve Pulmonary valve Atria Ventricles Chordae tendineae (heart strings) are located in the ventricles and connect the papillary muscles to the tricuspid and bicuspid valves. 13 / 19913) In human gut, chylomicrons are formed by the combination of: Vitamins and fats Proteins and carbohydrates Fats and carbohydrates Fats and proteins Chylomicrons are lipoprotein particles made primarily of triglycerides (fats) coated with a layer of proteins and phospholipids for transport. 14 / 19914) The pathways of water transport in which water moves through plasmodesmata is: Vacuolar Symplast Ascent of sap Apoplast The symplastic pathway involves water moving through the living cytoplasm of cells, connected by channels called plasmodesmata. 15 / 19915) In which phase of bacterial growth, they divide at exponential rate: Stationary phase Lag phase Log phase Decline phase During the log (logarithmic or exponential) phase, bacteria experience their most rapid rate of cell division. 16 / 19916) The unique macro-molecule in the bacterial cell wall is: Cholesterol Proteins Peptidoglycan Polysaccharides Peptidoglycan (murein) is a unique, tough polymer found specifically in the cell walls of bacteria, providing structural support. 17 / 19917) Function of pilus in bacteria is to: Degrade host enzymes Increase pathogenicity Exchange genetic material Degrade host plasma membrane Pili (specifically sex pili) are used by bacteria to attach to one another and facilitate the exchange of genetic material during conjugation. 18 / 19918) Which of the following is absent from membrane of prokaryotes? Phospholipid Glycoprotein Cholesterol Glycolipid Unlike eukaryotic cell membranes, prokaryotic cell membranes generally lack cholesterol (sterols), relying on hopanoids for fluidity regulation instead. 19 / 19919) Which of the following is NOT the function of lysosomes? Autolysis Intracellular digestion Autophagy Processing of cell secretions The processing and packaging of cell secretions is primarily the function of the Golgi apparatus, not the lysosomes. 20 / 19920) Peripheral parts of cell are often like a: Gel Sol Colloidal True solution The peripheral cytoplasm (ectoplasm) is typically more viscous and gel-like, providing structural support, while the inner endoplasm is more fluid (sol-like). 21 / 19921) The membrane separating the vacuole from cytoplasm is called: Vacuolar membrane Cisternae Tonoplast Cristae The tonoplast is the specialized semi-permeable membrane that bounds the large central vacuole in plant cells. 22 / 19922) Which part of plasma membrane controls the fluidity of the membrane: Glycolipid Phospholipid Cholesterol Glycoprotein Cholesterol molecules are embedded in the hydrophobic interior of the phospholipid bilayer, acting as temperature buffers to regulate membrane fluidity. 23 / 19923) The junction between the axon ending of a neuron and the dendrites of another neuron is called: Neuroglia Nissl's body Myelin sheath Synapse A synapse is the specialized junction where neurotransmitters are released to pass a signal from one neuron's axon to the next neuron's dendrites. 24 / 19924) Which body function is controlled through positive feed-back mechanism? Thyroxin release Body temperature Insulin production Labor pains Labor contractions are a classic example of a positive feedback loop, where the release of oxytocin stimulates more contractions, which in turn stimulates more oxytocin. 25 / 19925) Hormone released during child birth and in nursing women is: Estrogen Oxytocin Progesterone Calcitonin Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth and triggers the milk-ejection reflex (let-down) during nursing. 26 / 19926) During non-conducting state, the neuron membrane is permeable to efflux of: CI- $Ca^{+}$ $Na^{+}$ $K^{+}$ At resting potential (non-conducting state), the neuronal membrane is much more permeable to Potassium ($K^{+}$) leaking out of the cell than Sodium ($Na^{+}$) entering it. 27 / 19927) GABA is an example of: Excitatory neurotransmitter Enzyme Inhibitory neurotransmitter Hormone Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system, reducing neuronal excitability. 28 / 19928) What is the fate of neurotransmitters after provoking impulse in postsynaptic membrane? Taken up by postsynaptic membrane Recycled in synaptic cleft Stay in synaptic cleft indefinitely Degraded by enzyme To stop the signal, neurotransmitters are quickly removed from the synaptic cleft, either by enzymatic degradation (e.g., acetylcholinesterase) or presynaptic reuptake. 29 / 19929) Negative feedback mechanism is the characteristics of which class? Class Mammalia Class Reptilia Class Amphibian Class Fish While homeostasis exists in all, mammals (and birds) rely exceptionally heavily on negative feedback mechanisms to maintain strict thermoregulation and internal balance. 30 / 19930) Which of the following is true about Amoebae? They move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections called pseudopodia They do not cause any disease in humans They are multicellular They have flagella Amoebae are unicellular organisms that use temporary, arm-like projections of cytoplasm called pseudopodia for motility and feeding. 31 / 19931) Select an anamnoites from the following: Parrot Crocodile Frog Snake Anamniotes are vertebrates that lack an amnion during embryonic development. This group includes fishes and amphibians, such as frogs. 32 / 19932) Multicellular, heterotrophic nutrition, cell walls are never present in their cells, which kingdom do these organisms belong to? Kingdom Animalia Kingdom Fungi Kingdom Protoctista Kingdom Plantae Kingdom Animalia is uniquely characterized by multicellular organisms that ingest their food (heterotrophic) and completely lack cell walls. 33 / 19933) Select a regulatory enzyme: Maltase Urease Sucrase Hexokinase Hexokinase acts as an allosteric (regulatory) enzyme in the first step of glycolysis, regulating the entry of glucose into the metabolic pathway. 34 / 19934) Many enzymes are secreted in inactive form to protect: Vacuole Cell DNA Mitochondria Cell membrane Proteases are secreted as inactive zymogens to prevent them from digesting the cell membrane and internal proteins of the very cells that synthesize them. 35 / 19935) Mesosomes are the invagination of which bacterial cell structure? Plasmid Plasma membrane Cysts Cell wall Mesosomes are inward foldings (invaginations) of the bacterial plasma membrane, traditionally thought to play a role in respiration or cell division. 36 / 19936) Follicle Stimulating hormones (FSH) is secreted by: Adrenal gland Ovary Pituitary gland Testes FSH is a gonadotropin synthesized and secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland in the brain. 37 / 19937) Which is NOT a function of testosterone? Inhibition of LH Limit spermatogenesis Inhibition of FSH Sperm production Testosterone regulates LH via negative feedback, but FSH is primarily inhibited by the hormone Inhibin, which is secreted by Sertoli cells. 38 / 19938) A condition in which a joint becomes swollen painful and immoveable is called: Sciatica Arthritis Tetany Rickets Arthritis is the acute or chronic inflammation of a joint, causing pain, swelling, and stiffness. 39 / 19939) Which feature is possessed by smooth muscles? Multinucleate cells Striated appearance Contractile sarcomeres Uninucleate cells Unlike skeletal muscles, smooth muscle cells are non-striated, involuntary, and have a single, centrally located nucleus (uninucleate). 40 / 19940) Mature bone cells are called: Osteoclasts Chondrocytes Osteocytes Osteoblasts Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells that mature into osteocytes once they become embedded in the bone matrix they secrete. 41 / 19941) What do we call the cell surface membrane of a muscle fibre? Plasma membrane Myofibrils Sarcoplasm Sarcolemma The specialized plasma membrane that surrounds a striated muscle fiber cell is referred to as the sarcolemma. 42 / 19942) It is an event that occurs during meiosis-l, when chromatids of two chromosomes break and rejoin so that a part of one chromatid swaps places with the same part of the other: Gene mutation Chiasmata Crossing over Autosomal linkage Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during Prophase I. 43 / 19943) A change in the structure of a DNA molecule, producing a different allele of a gene, is a: Chromosome mutation Gene mutation Recombination Chromosomal aberrations A localized alteration in the nucleotide sequence of the DNA forming a specific gene is defined as a gene mutation. 44 / 19944) Which of the following example of human inheritance is explained by multiple alleles on an autosomal chromosome? Cystic firbrosis The ABO blood group system Down's syndrome Haemophilia The ABO blood group is determined by three different alleles ($I^A$, $I^B$, $i$) occupying a single locus on an autosomal chromosome. 45 / 19945) Phenotype is: The form of appearance of a trait The genetic complement i.e the genes in an individual for a particular trait The position of a gene on the chromosome Partner of gene pair Phenotype refers to the observable physical properties or biochemical characteristics of an organism, as determined by genetic and environmental influences. 46 / 19946) When a haemophilic carrier woman marries a haemophilic man, who among her offspring's may be affected? All her daughters All her children Half of her sons and half of her daughters Half of her daughters and all sons A carrier woman ($X^HX^h$) and affected man ($X^hY$) yield a 50% chance for sons to have it ($X^hY$) and a 50% chance for daughters to have it ($X^hX^h$). 47 / 19947) The particular array of chromosomes that an individual possesses is called its: Genotype Karyotype Phenotype Allele A karyotype is the distinct visual profile or array of chromosomes found within the nucleus of an individual's cells. 48 / 19948) Which of the following is 'NOT RELATED' to enveloped virus? They are tolerant to antibodies Envelop is derived from host They survive for a short time Their envelope is sensitive to sun light Enveloped viruses are generally fragile outside the host and susceptible to physical/chemical disruption. They are NOT intrinsically tolerant to neutralizing antibodies. 49 / 19949) Choose the organism which requires a single cellular gene to encode the protein making up the organism: Prions Virion Viroid Virus Prions are misfolded, infectious proteins that are encoded by a single normal cellular gene (the PRNP gene) present in the host. 50 / 19950) is transmitted through infected blood and hypodermic syringes: Vibrio Cholerae (Cholera) Influenza Virus HIV Morbilli Virus (Measles) The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is a blood-borne pathogen primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected blood, such as sharing needles. 51 / 19951) infection is caused by a viroid: Hepatitis D Hepatitis A Mysterious brain infection Mad Cow disease Hepatitis D is caused by a subviral satellite RNA that closely resembles plant viroids in its structure, though it depends on Hepatitis B to infect cells. 52 / 19952) The final acceptor of both electrons & protons during light reactions of photosynthesis is: NADP+ PQ PC Fd At the end of the non-cyclic electron transport chain, NADP+ is reduced by gaining electrons and protons to form NADPH. 53 / 19953) The only copper containing protein involved during light reactions of photosynthesis is: Plastocyanin Ferridoxin Cytochrome Plastoquinone Plastocyanin is a copper-containing, water-soluble mobile electron carrier located in the thylakoid lumen. 54 / 19954) The end product of glycolysis in anaerobic respiration is: Ethanol and Carbon dioxide Pyruvate Lactate Acetyl CoA Glycolysis always produces Pyruvate as its definitive end product; in anaerobic respiration, pyruvate is subsequently converted into lactate or ethanol. 55 / 19955) End product of Calvin cycle is: 1-3 biphosphoglycerate Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate Glucose 3 phosphoglycerate The direct carbohydrate end-product of the Calvin cycle is a 3-carbon sugar called Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P), which is later used to build glucose. 56 / 19956) Second most abundant bio element in human body is: Hydrogen Carbon Nitrogen Oxygen Oxygen makes up roughly 65% of body mass, followed by Carbon as the second most abundant element at about 18%. 57 / 19957) The basic structural framework of all types of membranes are: Nucleoproteins Glycoproteins Glycolipids Lipoproteins Biological membranes consist primarily of lipid bilayers interspersed with proteins, effectively making their structural framework complex lipoproteins. 58 / 19958) Three hydrophobic fatty acid tails and a glycerol molecule join to form a: Triglyceride Phospholipid Monoglyceride Diglyceride A triglyceride (or triacylglycerol) is synthesized by esterifying three distinct fatty acid chains onto a single glycerol backbone. 59 / 19959) The sugar which is part of ribonucleic acid is: Ribose Ribulose Deoxyribulose Deoxyribose RNA (Ribonucleic acid) is characterized by having a ribose sugar component, distinguishing it structurally from the deoxyribose sugar found in DNA. 60 / 19960) Which of the following process involve in decomposition of protein into Amino acids? Hydrolysis Glycolysis Condensation Fixation Hydrolysis is the chemical breakdown of a compound due to reaction with water; this process splits the peptide bonds in proteins to release amino acids. 61 / 19961) Select the protein providing support for the connective tissues: Keratin Collagen Elastin Histones Collagen is the main structural, fibrous protein found in the extracellular space of various connective tissues in animal bodies. 62 / 19962) Fibrous proteins 'DO NOT' take part in: Muscle contraction Oxygen transport in blood Blood clotting Formation of nails Oxygen transport is handled by hemoglobin, which is a globular (folded, spherical) protein, not a fibrous one. 63 / 19963) Outer membrane of mitochondria and chloroplast resembles as both are: Impermeable Freely permeable to large molecules Freely permeable to small molecules Semipermeable The outer membranes of both organelles contain pore-forming proteins called porins, which make them freely permeable to ions and small molecules. 64 / 19964) In mitochondria ATP synthase is located on its: Inner membrane Inter membrane space Matrix Outer Membrane The ATP synthase enzyme complexes are embedded directly in the heavily folded inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae). 65 / 19965) Which of the following is absent from membrane of prokaryotes? Glycolipid Glycoprotein Phospholipid Cholesterol Unlike eukaryotic cell membranes, prokaryotic cell membranes generally lack cholesterol, relying on hopanoids for fluidity regulation instead. 66 / 19966) What is the primary function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? Protein synthesis Lipid synthesis Detoxification Carbohydrate metabolism The rough ER is studded with ribosomes, making it the primary site for the synthesis and packaging of proteins. 67 / 19967) Which cellular structure is primarily responsible for generating ATP? Ribosome Nucleus Mitochondria Golgi apparatus Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell, generating the vast majority of the cell's supply of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through cellular respiration. 68 / 19968) During menstrual cycle, after the female gamete is released from the ovary at ovulation, the ruptured follicle becomes the: Corpus albicans Corpus luteum Primary follicle Graafian follicle After ovulation, the remnants of the ruptured follicle in the ovary develop into the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone to maintain the uterine lining. 69 / 19969) A metal reacts vigorously with cold water melting in to a ball of molten metal moves across the surface of water giving off Hydrogen gas and burns with yellowish golden flame. What could be the identity of this metal? Calcium Potassium Lithium Sodium Sodium reacts vigorously with cold water, melting into a ball due to the exothermic nature of the reaction, and burns with its characteristic yellow-golden flame. (Potassium burns lilac, Lithium burns red). 70 / 19970) Among alkali metals which element reacts slowly with H2O? Li K Rb Na Lithium has the highest activation energy and strongest lattice energy among the alkali metals, making its reaction with water the slowest and least vigorous. 71 / 19971) Which element has smaller shielding effect among the following? Rb Mg Ca Sr The shielding effect increases down a group as the number of electron shells increases. Magnesium (Mg) is at the top of these options in the periodic table, so it has the smallest shielding effect. 72 / 19972) In transition elements number of unpaired electrons increase upto group number: III B & IV B V B & VI B IV B & III B I B & II B The number of unpaired d-electrons increases steadily from Group III B up to Group VI B (like Chromium, which has 6 unpaired electrons including its s-orbital) before pairing begins. 73 / 19973) The binding energy of transitional elements weakens progressively upto group: V B III B IV B II B Binding energy depends heavily on the presence of unpaired electrons. It weakens as electrons pair up, reaching a minimum at Group II B (Zinc group) because all of their d-electrons are fully paired. 74 / 19974) Metamers differ from each other due to: Position of functional group Distribution of carbon atoms around the functional group Shifting of proton Functional group Metamerism is a form of structural isomerism where isomers have the same molecular formula but differ in the nature of alkyl groups attached to the same polyvalent functional group (e.g., ethers, ketones). 75 / 19975) Isomerism due to shifting of proton from one atom to another in a same molecule is known as: Metamerism Tautomerism Functional Position Tautomerism involves a rapid dynamic equilibrium between two isomers, most commonly driven by the migration of a proton (hydrogen atom) between a carbon and an electronegative atom like oxygen. 76 / 19976) The type of isomerism existing in a compound of molecular formula C2H6O is: Metamerism Functional group Position Chain The formula C2H6O can represent an alcohol (ethanol, CH3CH2OH) or an ether (dimethyl ether, CH3OCH3), which are entirely different functional groups. 77 / 19977) Benzene is prepared in the laboratory from sodium benzoate in the presence of: NaOH + CaO Dil: NaOH Na / Ether Alc: KOH Heating sodium benzoate with soda lime (a solid mixture of NaOH and CaO) results in a decarboxylation reaction that produces benzene. 78 / 19978) Which of the following will not give substitution reaction? C6H6 CH3-CH3 CH2=CH2 CH≡CH Ethene (CH2=CH2) is an alkene. Because of its exposed pi bond, it almost exclusively undergoes electrophilic addition reactions rather than substitution reactions. 79 / 19979) If both double and triple bonds are present then ending given to the root is: ene yne enyne ane According to IUPAC naming conventions, if a molecule contains both a double bond and a triple bond, the suffix 'ene' and 'yne' are combined to form 'enyne'. 80 / 19980) Which compound is least reactive? CH≡CH CH2=CH2 C6H6 CH3-CH3 Ethane (CH3-CH3) is an alkane. Alkanes are generally the least reactive among hydrocarbons because they are composed exclusively of strong, non-polar sigma bonds. 81 / 19981) The correct order of reactivity of hydrocarbons is: Alkenes > Alkanes > Alkynes Alkynes > Alkenes > Alkanes Alkenes > Alkynes > Alkanes Alkanes > Alkynes > Alkenes Alkenes are the most reactive due to their accessible pi electrons. Alkynes are less reactive than alkenes toward electrophiles because the pi electrons are held tighter. Alkanes are the least reactive. 82 / 19982) The function of NaOH in Aldol condensation & Cannizzaro's reaction respectively is: Base and nucleophile Nucleophile and base Nucleophile and electrophile Electrophile and nucleophile In an Aldol condensation, NaOH acts as a base to extract an alpha-hydrogen and form an enolate. In a Cannizzaro reaction, the hydroxide ion acts as a nucleophile attacking the carbonyl carbon. 83 / 19983) Which of the following is not true for increase in synthesis of ammonia by Haber's process? (N2 + 3H2 <-> 2NH3, ΔH = -92.5) Continuous addition of NH3 Continuous removal of NH3 High pressure Low temperature According to Le Chatelier's principle, continuously adding the product (NH3) to the system would shift the equilibrium backward towards the reactants, thereby decreasing the synthesis of ammonia. 84 / 19984) What is not true about the Le Chatelier's principle? Allow to predict the change in temperature on system at equilibrium Allow to predict the change in reaction rate on system at equilibrium Allow to predict the change in concentration on system at equilibrium Allow to predict the change in pressure on system at equilibrium Le Chatelier's principle only predicts the direction an equilibrium will shift to counteract a stress. It provides no information about the kinetics or the speed (rate) at which the reaction occurs. 85 / 19985) For a gaseous phase reaction, when number of moles of reactants and products are equal: The values of Kp and Kc are the same The value of Kc is greater than Kp The values of Kp and Kc are different The value of Kp is greater that Kc The relationship is Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn. When the number of moles of products equals the number of moles of reactants, Δn = 0. Since anything to the power of 0 is 1, Kp = Kc. 86 / 19986) The rate constant 'k' in the rate equation is the rate of reaction when concentration of each of the reactant is: 2 M 1 M 3 M 4 M The specific rate constant (k) is defined as being mathematically equal to the rate of the reaction when the concentration of all reactants is exactly 1 Molar. 87 / 19987) The rate of reaction: Decreases as the reaction proceeds Increases as the reaction proceeds Remains the same initially and then increases Remains the same as the reaction proceeds As a chemical reaction progresses, the concentration of the reactants decreases. This leads to fewer successful collisions per unit of time, causing the rate of reaction to decrease. 88 / 19988) For exothermic reactions ΔH is written as: Negative Zero Positive Constant In an exothermic reaction, the system releases heat energy to its surroundings. Consequently, the enthalpy of the products is lower than the reactants, resulting in a negative ΔH. 89 / 19989) Which of the following information we obtain from the Lattice energy? It explains the structure of the molecular compound It explains bonding in the covalent compound It helps while explaining the structure of the ionic compound It explains properties of the metallic compound Lattice energy is the energy required to completely separate one mole of a solid ionic compound into its gaseous ions. It gives critical insight into the stability, structure, and physical properties of ionic compounds. 90 / 19990) In the reaction, Cr2O7⁻² + 14 H⁺ -> 2 Cr⁺³ + 7H2O. How many electrons are gained or lost by chromium atom? +3 e -6 e +12 e +6 e The oxidation state of each individual Chromium atom changes from +6 in the dichromate ion to +3 in the product. Therefore, each single Chromium atom gains 3 electrons (+3 e). 91 / 19991) The oxidation number of oxygen in Na2O2 is: -1 +1 +2 -2 Na2O2 is sodium peroxide. Since sodium is an alkali metal and always has a +1 oxidation state, the two oxygen atoms must balance a +2 charge. Thus, each oxygen in the peroxide ion has an oxidation state of -1. 92 / 19992) Which of the following will have positive electron affinity? Addition of electron to (O) Addition of electron to (Cl) Addition of electron to (Cl⁺) Addition of electron to (O⁻¹) Adding an electron to an already negatively charged ion, such as (O⁻¹) to form (O⁻²), requires energy to overcome the strong electrostatic repulsion. This makes the process endothermic (positive electron affinity). 93 / 19993) Which of the following molecule has sp² hybridization? BF3 BeCl2 NH3 H2O In Boron trifluoride (BF3), the central Boron atom forms three sigma bonds with no lone pairs. This results in a trigonal planar geometry, which corresponds to sp² hybridization. 94 / 19994) Which of the following has small size? S Na P Mg Atomic size generally decreases across a period from left to right due to increasing effective nuclear charge. All these elements are in Period 3, and Sulphur (S) is the furthest to the right, making it the smallest. 95 / 19995) The melting point of sulphur is higher than that of phosphorous because: Sulphur has strong vander waals forces Sulphur has weak vander waals forces Phosphorous has strong vander waals forces Phosphorous has weak vander waals forces Sulphur exists as larger S8 molecules compared to Phosphorous which is P4. The larger size and greater number of electrons in S8 result in stronger London dispersion (Van der Waals) forces, requiring more energy to melt. 96 / 19996) Alkyl Halides involving -C-X bond breakage and -C-Nu bond formation simultaneously would follow the mechanism: E2 E1 SN2 SN1 An SN2 mechanism is a concerted, single-step reaction where the attacking nucleophile enters at the exact same time as the leaving group departs. 97 / 19997) 50% inversion of configuration and 50% retention of configuration observed is characteristics of mechanism: SN1 E2 E1 SN2 In an SN1 reaction, the formation of a planar carbocation intermediate allows the nucleophile to attack from either face with roughly equal probability, leading to a racemic mixture (50% retention and 50% inversion). 98 / 19998) The order of reactivity of alcohol when O-H bond breaks is: Primary alcohol > secondary alcohol > tertiary alcohol Tertiary alcohol > secondary alcohol > Primary alcohol Primary alcohol > tertiary alcohol > secondary alcohol Secondary alcohol > tertiary alcohol > primary alcohol When the O-H bond breaks, reactivity is tied to acidity. Primary alcohols are the most acidic (and most reactive here) because they have fewer electron-donating alkyl groups to destabilize the resulting alkoxide ion compared to tertiary alcohols. 99 / 19999) The following functional group is the result oxidation of alcohol: Ketone / alkane Aldehyde / alkane Aldehyde / acid Ketone / aldehyde The controlled oxidation of a primary alcohol yields an aldehyde, while the oxidation of a secondary alcohol yields a ketone. 100 / 199100) The relative acidic strength of phenol, water, alcohol & carboxylic acid is: -COOH > H2O > C6H5OH > -OH -COOH > C6H5OH > H2O > -OH -COOH > H2O > -OH > C6H5OH -COOH > -OH > C6H5OH > H2O Carboxylic acids are the most acidic due to resonance stabilization of the carboxylate ion. Phenol is more acidic than water due to phenoxide resonance. Water is slightly more acidic than most aliphatic alcohols (-OH). 101 / 199101) Aldehydes cannot be easily oxidized by: K2Cr2O7 KMnO4 HCl H2SO4 Aldehydes are easily oxidized to carboxylic acids by strong oxidizing agents like K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is not an oxidizing agent. 102 / 199102) Aldehydes do not give which identification test: Sodium Nitro Prusside Test 2,4-DNPH test Tollen's Test Fehling's Solution The Sodium Nitroprusside test is specifically used to detect the presence of methyl ketones (which produce a red color) and is generally negative for aldehydes. 103 / 199103) The hydrate percentage is maximum for: Acetone Propanal Acetaldehyde Formaldehyde Formaldehyde forms a stable hydrate (methanediol) almost completely in an aqueous solution because it lacks bulky, electron-donating alkyl groups that would stabilize the carbonyl carbon or cause steric hindrance. 104 / 199104) When carboxylic acids are heated with alcohol in the presence of concem H2SO4 the conversion of function group takes place from: Carboxyl group to an ester group Carboxyl to hydroxyl group Carbonyl to carboxyl group Carboxyl to carbonyl group Heating a carboxylic acid with an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst (like conc. H2SO4) initiates a Fischer esterification, converting the carboxyl group into an ester group. 105 / 199105) Thionyl chloride reacts with acetic acid resulting in transformation of Carboxylic group to: Acetamide Alcohol Ester Acid halide The reaction of a carboxylic acid with thionyl chloride (SOCl2) is a standard laboratory method to substitute the hydroxyl group with a chlorine atom, producing an acid chloride (acid halide). 106 / 199106) Reactivity of carboxyl group is due to presence of: Terminal hydrogen Alkyl group Carbonyl group Hydroxyl group The reactivity of the carboxyl group, particularly in nucleophilic acyl substitution reactions, is heavily dictated by the highly polar and electron-deficient carbonyl carbon acting as an electrophilic center. 107 / 199107) The two functional groups present in all amino acids are: Amino and aldehyde Carboxylic acid and amino Ether and carboxylic acid Aldehyde and carboxylic acid By definition, all amino acids feature a central alpha-carbon attached to both a primary amino group (-NH2) and a carboxylic acid group (-COOH). 108 / 199108) Enzyme is a natural substance that: Has no effect on the rate of chemical reaction Increases the rate of chemical reaction Decreases the rate of chemical reaction Stops the chemical reaction Enzymes are highly efficient biological catalysts that significantly increase the rate of biochemical reactions by lowering their activation energy. 109 / 199109) Number of H2O molecules in 10 g of ice are: 3.34 x 10²³ 0.331 x 10²³ 10 33.1 x 10²³ First find the moles of water (10 g / 18 g/mol = 0.555 moles). Multiplying this by Avogadro's number (0.555 moles * 6.02 x 10²³ molecules/mole) yields approximately 3.34 x 10²³ molecules. 110 / 199110) The efficiency of chemical reaction can be expressed as: Percent yield Actual yield Theoretical yield Maximum yield The efficiency of a chemical reaction is best determined by its percent yield, which is the ratio of the actual yield obtained to the theoretical yield possible, multiplied by 100. 111 / 199111) 1 mol of any substance contains ___ particles: 6.02 x 10²⁴ 3.01 x 10²³ 6.02 x 10²² 6.02 x 10²³ One mole of any substance is fundamentally defined as containing Avogadro's number of particles (atoms, molecules, or ions), which is approximately 6.02 x 10²³. 112 / 199112) Which of the following orbital will be filled first than 4p? 3d 1s 2p 4s According to the Aufbau principle and the n+l rule, the 3d subshell (n+l = 3+2=5) is filled immediately before the 4p subshell (n+l = 4+1=5, higher n fills later). 113 / 199113) If value of azimuthal quantum number is 1 then value of m will range from: -1 to 1 -1 to 3 -1 to 4 -1 to 2 The magnetic quantum number (m) can have integer values ranging from -l to +l. For an azimuthal quantum number (l) of 1 (a p-orbital), the values are -1, 0, and +1. 114 / 199114) The dumbbell like orbitals can move in how many directions? 7 5 3 1 Dumbbell-shaped orbitals correspond to the p-subshell. A p-subshell possesses three distinct spatial orientations along the orthogonal axes: px, py, and pz. 115 / 199115) The relationship between quantum number n and l is: n = 1 - 2 l = n - 1 l = n - 2 n = l - 1 For any given principal quantum number (n), the possible values for the azimuthal quantum number (l) start from 0 and go up to a maximum of (n - 1). 116 / 199116) 10 pascal is equal to: 4.014 psi 0.000098 atm 1.98 atm 10.019 kpa Standard atmospheric pressure (1 atm) equals 101,325 Pascals. Dividing 10 Pascals by 101,325 yields approximately 0.00009869 atm. 117 / 199117) Intermolecular forces between molecules of ideal gas are: Moderately strong Zero Very strong Very weak A core postulate of the Kinetic Molecular Theory for ideal gases is that gas molecules experience absolutely zero intermolecular forces of attraction or repulsion. 118 / 199118) The real gases show deviation from ideal behaviour at: High temperature and low pressure Low temperature and low pressure High temperature and high pressure Low temperature and high pressure Real gases deviate most from ideal behavior under conditions of low temperature (molecules slow down, making intermolecular forces significant) and high pressure (molecules are forced closer together, making their volume non-negligible). 119 / 199119) Which of the following has the lowest vapour pressure at 20°C? Carbon tetrachloride Water Diethyl ether Chloroform Vapor pressure is inversely related to the strength of intermolecular forces. Water possesses extensive hydrogen bonding, which is much stronger than the dispersion forces or dipole-dipole interactions in the other options, resulting in the lowest vapor pressure. 120 / 199120) The force of attraction among H2 molecules in solid H2 are: Covalent bonds Hydrogen bonds Van Der Waal's Forces Co-ordinate covalent bonds Because H2 is a perfectly non-polar and symmetrical molecule, the only intermolecular forces available to bind the molecules together in the solid phase are weak London dispersion forces, which fall under the umbrella of Van der Waals forces. 121 / 199121) Which of the following molecules are soft and have weak intermolecular forces? Sugar I2 H2O Graphite Iodine (I2) is a non-polar molecular solid. It is held together entirely by weak Van der Waals forces, making the solid relatively soft and easily sublimable. 122 / 199122) Which of the following solids have strong metallic bond? Calcium Sulphur Potassium Phosphorus Calcium is an alkaline earth metal that donates two valence electrons into the 'electron sea', creating a significantly stronger metallic bond and higher melting point compared to Potassium, which only donates one. 123 / 199123) The relative permittivity of air (1 atm) is: 2.284 22-25 1.0006 1 The relative permittivity, or dielectric constant, of air at standard atmospheric pressure is experimentally determined to be approximately 1.0006. 124 / 199124) Equivalent capacitance is less than least value of capacitance in a combination in: Parallel Open circuit Series Closed circuit In a series combination, the reciprocal of the equivalent capacitance is the sum of the reciprocals of the individual capacitances. This ensures the total equivalent capacitance is always smaller than the smallest individual capacitor in the circuit. 125 / 199125) The magnitude of the force between two point charges is directly proportional to: Square of distance between point charges Product of magnitude of charges Cube of distance between point charges Distance between point charges According to Coulomb's Law, the electrostatic force between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the magnitudes of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. 126 / 199126) When dielectric is placed between the plates of a capacitor then capacitance will: Increase Remains same Becomes half Decrease Inserting a dielectric material between the plates of a capacitor reduces the effective electric field, which lowers the potential difference for a given charge, thereby increasing the overall capacitance (C = Q/V). 127 / 199127) A charge of 90 C passes through a wire for 30 seconds. Then the current in the wire will be: 3 A 0.3 mA 0.3 A 3 mA Electric current is the rate of flow of charge. Using the formula I = Q / t, dividing 90 Coulombs by 30 seconds gives a current of 3 Amperes. 128 / 199128) The magnitude of the current in metals is proportional to the applied voltage as long as temperature of conductor is kept constant. It is statement of: Ampere's Law Ohm's Law Gauss Law Joule's Law Ohm's Law states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points, provided physical conditions like temperature remain constant. 129 / 199129) When length of copper wire is doubled then resistivity becomes: Half Double Four times Remains same Resistivity is an intrinsic property of a material. While changing the length or cross-sectional area changes the total resistance, it does not alter the material's specific resistivity. 130 / 199130) The resistance of semi-conductor with rise in temperature: Infinite Increases Remain same Decreases Semiconductors have a negative temperature coefficient of resistivity. As temperature rises, more electrons are freed into the conduction band, increasing conductivity and thus decreasing resistance. 131 / 199131) A heating coil has a resistance of 10 ohm. It is designed to operate on 20V. What electric energy is supplied to heater in 10s? 300J 100J 400J 200J Power P = V² / R = (20)² / 10 = 400 / 10 = 40 Watts. Energy E = Power × time = 40 W × 10 s = 400 Joules. 132 / 199132) The unit of resistivity is: ohm meter ohm / meter ohm meter / ohm Resistivity (ρ) is defined by the formula R = ρ(L/A), which rearranges to ρ = RA/L. Measuring R in ohms, A in m², and L in m gives the unit ohm-meter (Ω·m). 133 / 199133) The unit of magnetic flux is: Wbm⁻² Wbm⁻¹ Weber (Wb) Wbm The SI derived unit of magnetic flux is the Weber (Wb), which is equivalent to a volt-second. 134 / 199134) Magnetic flux is the dot product of: Magnetic field and scalar area Magnetic field per unit scalar area Magnetic field per unit vector area Magnetic field and vector area Magnetic flux (Φ) through a surface is defined mathematically as the dot product of the magnetic field vector (B) and the vector area (A) of the surface: Φ = B • A. 135 / 199135) The dimension of magnetic field is same as: Magnetic flux density Work done Magnetic flux Magnetic force The terms 'magnetic field' (usually referring to the B-field) and 'magnetic flux density' are physically synonymous and share the same dimensions and units (Tesla or Webers/m²). 136 / 199136) At what angle the curved path should be banked if a car is moving with a speed of 12 m/s at a radius 36m? 20° 10° 22° 15° The banking angle is found using tan(θ) = v² / (rg). Substituting the values: 144 / (36 × 9.8) ≈ 144 / 352.8 ≈ 0.408. The inverse tangent of 0.408 is approximately 22.2°. 137 / 199137) The rate of radioactive decay is inversely proportional to the: Medium Atmosphere Half life Isotopes The rate of radioactive decay (activity) is inversely proportional to the half-life of the substance; elements with longer half-lives decay at a slower rate. 138 / 199138) If a body of mass 'm' is moved in a closed loop by a conservative force, the work done on the body is: Zero Maximum Minimum Infinite By definition, the total work done by a conservative force (like gravity or electrostatic force) on an object moving around any closed path is exactly zero. 139 / 199139) A wave generator produces 500 pulses in 50s. Its frequency will be: 500 s⁻¹ 10 s⁻¹ 50 s⁻¹ 0.1 s⁻¹ Frequency is the number of cycles or pulses per unit of time. f = 500 pulses / 50 seconds = 10 Hertz (or s⁻¹). 140 / 199140) Amplitude in the given figure is given as: (Given graph peaks at 1m) 1/2 m 1/4 m 2 m 1 m Amplitude is the maximum displacement from the equilibrium (zero) position. If the crest of the wave aligns with the 1 m mark on the axis, the amplitude is 1 m. 141 / 199141) Which is the correct 'ascending order' in which the following photons are arranged according to their energy? Microwaves, Ultraviolet rays, Gamma rays Ultraviolet rays, Gamma rays, Microwaves Gamma rays, Ultraviolet rays, Microwaves Gamma rays, Microwaves, Ultraviolet rays Energy is directly proportional to frequency. Microwaves have the lowest frequency (and energy), followed by Ultraviolet rays, with Gamma rays having the highest energy. 142 / 199142) The Speed of sound in air is 332 ms⁻¹ at 0°C. What will be its value at 10°C? 332.61 ms⁻¹ 332 ms⁻¹ 334.1 ms⁻¹ 38.1 ms⁻¹ The speed of sound increases by roughly 0.61 m/s for every 1°C rise. At 10°C, v = 332 + (0.61 × 10) = 338.1 ms⁻¹. Option B in the original source contained a typo omitting the '3' (38.1 instead of 338.1). 143 / 199143) The number of revolutions per second of a body is known as: Angular frequency Time period Linear frequency Amplitude Revolutions per second defines the linear frequency (f) of circular motion. Angular frequency (ω) is measured in radians per second. 144 / 199144) Which of the following factors does not affect the speed of sound in air? Density of gas Moisture in air Temperature Pressure of gas According to the Laplace correction, variations in the pressure of an ideal gas at a constant temperature do not affect the speed of sound because the ratio of pressure to density remains constant. 145 / 199145) Time period of a vibrating body is independent of: Value of 'g' Amplitude Frequency Wavelength For a simple harmonic oscillator (like an ideal pendulum or mass-spring system), the time period remains independent of the amplitude as long as the oscillations are small. 146 / 199146) The relation between Cp and Cv is: Cp - Cv = R Cv - Cp = R Cp + Cv = R R - Cv = Cp Mayer's relation for an ideal gas dictates that the difference between the molar heat capacity at constant pressure (Cp) and constant volume (Cv) equals the universal gas constant (R). 147 / 199147) The equation of 1st Law of thermodynamics is: Q = W W = Q + ΔU Q = ΔU + W ΔU = Q + W The first law of thermodynamics states that the total heat energy (Q) supplied to a system is used partly to change its internal energy (ΔU) and partly to do external work (W). 148 / 199148) The thermodynamics process during which the pressure is kept constant is called: Adiabatic process Isothermal process Isochoric process Isobaric process An isobaric process is a thermodynamic process in which the pressure of the system remains constant (iso = equal, baric = pressure). 149 / 199149) A one micro farad capacitor of a TV is subjected to 4000 V potential difference. The energy stored in capacitor is: 16 J 8 J 2 x 10⁻³ J 4 x 10⁻³ J Using the formula E = ½CV², we get E = 0.5 × (1 × 10⁻⁶ F) × (4000 V)². This evaluates to 0.5 × 10⁻⁶ × 16,000,000 = 8 Joules. 150 / 199150) A particle carrying a charge 2 e falls through a P.D of 3 V. The energy acquired by it will be: 6 ev 7 ev 5 ev 1.5 ev Kinetic energy acquired is the product of charge and potential difference. E = qV = (2e) × (3V) = 6 eV. 151 / 199151) Due to polarization process of dielectric, the electric intensity: Becomes zero Remains same Decreases Increases Polarization within a dielectric creates an internal electric field that opposes the external applied field, causing the net electric intensity between the capacitor plates to decrease. 152 / 199152) The phenomenon in which a changing current in one coil induces an emf in another coil is: Choke Eddy current Mutual induction Self-induction Mutual induction is the property where a changing current in a primary coil induces an electromotive force (EMF) in a nearby secondary coil due to the changing magnetic flux linkage. 153 / 199153) The induced current will flow in such a direction so as to oppose the cause that produces it. It is the statement of: Lenz's Law Faraday's Law Ampere's Law Joule's Law Lenz's Law ensures the conservation of energy in electromagnetic induction by dictating that induced EMFs and currents always oppose the change in magnetic flux that generated them. 154 / 199154) The transformer depends on the use of: Alternating current Direct and alternating current Direct current Direct and alternating voltage Transformers operate on the principle of mutual electromagnetic induction, which requires a constantly changing magnetic field. Only alternating current (AC) provides this. 155 / 199155) The domestic electricity supply in Pakistan has a frequency of: 150 Hz 25 Hz 100 Hz 50 Hz The standard domestic AC power supply grid in Pakistan (and many other parts of the world) operates at a frequency of 50 Hz. 156 / 199156) Transformer works on the principle of: Half wave rectification Self induction Full wave rectification Mutual induction A transformer steps AC voltages up or down based on mutual induction, where a varying current in the primary winding creates a changing flux that induces a voltage in the secondary winding. 157 / 199157) The conversion of A.C into D.C is called rectification and circuit is called rectifier. Which component of electronics acts as a rectifier? Inductor Transistor Diode Transformer A semiconductor diode allows current to flow easily in only one direction. This unidirectional behavior makes it the fundamental component for rectifying AC to DC. 158 / 199158) The wavelength associated with an electron is of the order of: Visible light Infrared Radio waves X-rays According to the de Broglie equation, typical high-energy electrons (like those in an electron microscope) have wavelengths in the sub-nanometer range, which perfectly corresponds to the X-ray portion of the electromagnetic spectrum. 159 / 199159) Red light is used in photographic dark room because of: Low frequency, long wavelength High frequency, long wavelength High frequency, short wavelength Low frequency, short wavelength Red light possesses a long wavelength and consequently a low frequency. Because its photons carry very little energy, it does not trigger the photochemical reactions in standard black-and-white photographic paper. 160 / 199160) Which photons carries the most energy? Red Violet Green Blue Energy of a photon is inversely proportional to its wavelength (E = hc/λ). Violet light has the shortest wavelength in the visible spectrum and therefore carries the highest photon energy. 161 / 199161) Which X-ray photon will have longest wavelength? Kα Mα Kβ Kγ The longest wavelength corresponds to the smallest energy transition. The transition into the M shell (Mα) involves much less energy compared to transitions falling deep into the K shell. 162 / 199162) Which of following series lies in infra-red region? Paschen and Brakett Lyman and Balmer Balmer and Paschen Brackett and Pfund In the hydrogen emission spectrum, the Lyman series is UV, and Balmer is visible. The Paschen, Brackett, and Pfund series all lie entirely within the infrared spectrum. 163 / 199163) The unit of radio activity is curie which is equal to: 3.7 disintegration / s 7.3 disintegration / s 7.3 x 10¹⁰ disintegration / s 3.7 x 10¹⁰ disintegration / s One Curie (Ci) was originally defined based on the radioactivity of one gram of radium-226 and is standardized as 3.7 × 10¹⁰ decays or disintegrations per second. 164 / 199164) Skin burn, loss of hair, drop in white blood cell and induction of cancer are example of ___ of radiation: Somatic effect Biological effect Genetic effect Zener effect Somatic effects are physical damages occurring directly to the exposed individual's body cells (soma), unlike genetic effects which manifest in the offspring due to mutated reproductive cells. 165 / 199165) The car is speeding up along negative y axis then acceleration will be along: Positive x Axis Negative y Axis Positive y Axis Negative x Axis If an object is speeding up, its acceleration vector must point in the exact same direction as its velocity vector (in this case, along the negative y-axis). 166 / 199166) Momentum is product of mass and velocity, then momentum and velocity are: Independent Antiparallel Perpendicular Parallel Momentum is a vector quantity defined as p = mv. Since mass is a positive scalar, the momentum vector always points in the exact same (parallel) direction as the velocity vector. 167 / 199167) Which of the pair of two projectiles projected at different angles have same ranges? (30°, 70°) (45°, 40°) (40°, 50°) (35°, 40°) For a given initial velocity, projectiles have identical ranges if their projection angles are complementary (i.e., they sum to 90°). 40° + 50° = 90°. 168 / 199168) The slope of velocity-time graph gives us: Speed Velocity Acceleration Distance The slope (rise over run) of a velocity-time graph represents the change in velocity over time, which is the definition of acceleration. 169 / 199169) The time rate of change of linear momentum of a body is equal to: Power Force Momentum Acceleration According to Newton's Second Law in its original form, the net applied force equals the rate of change of the object's linear momentum (F = dp/dt). 170 / 199170) At what angle of projection of a projectile the range becomes half of its maximum value? 15° 30° 20° 40° Maximum range occurs at 45°. Since Range R ∝ sin(2θ), for the range to be half, sin(2θ) must equal 0.5. Thus, 2θ = 30°, which makes the projection angle θ = 15°. 171 / 199171) If a body of mass 'm' is accelerated on a smooth horizontal surface 'S' by a force 'F', the work done on the body is: S / F F + S F x S F / S Work is defined as the product of the force applied and the displacement in the direction of the force. Hence, Work = Force × displacement = F × S. 172 / 199172) One megawatt hour is equal to: 3.6 x 10⁶ J 3.6 nJ 3.6 x 10⁹ J 3.6 MJ Power is energy over time. One Megawatt (10⁶ W) used for one hour (3600 seconds) equals 10⁶ J/s × 3600 s = 3.6 × 10⁹ Joules. 173 / 199173) A motor boat is moving with velocity 4 ms⁻¹. The net force acting on it is 4000 N. What will be the power of the engine of boat? 1000 W 160 W 16 KW 1600 W Mechanical power can be calculated as the product of force and constant velocity. P = F × v = 4000 N × 4 m/s = 16,000 W, which is 16 kilowatts (KW). 174 / 199174) In angular motion, in one rotation there are: 2π radians π radians π/4 radians π/2 radians A complete circle (one full rotation) maps out an arc length equal to its circumference (2πr). Therefore, there are exactly 2π radians in one rotation. 175 / 199175) If a stone of mass 1 Kg is whirled in a horizontal circle (radius = 1 m) with velocity 1 m/s, then the period is: π/2 4π 2π/2 2π The time period (T) is the distance traveled in one orbit divided by the velocity. T = (2πr) / v = (2π × 1 m) / (1 m/s) = 2π seconds. 176 / 199176) The relation between linear and angular acceleration is: a = rα a = r/α a = r²α a = rα² Tangential linear acceleration (a) is directly proportional to angular acceleration (α), with the radius (r) of the circular path serving as the constant of proportionality. 177 / 199177) The word 'RELUCTANT' means: Remarkable Rude Hesitant Current Reluctant means feeling or showing hesitation, unwillingness, or aversion to doing something. 178 / 199178) The SYNONYM of 'Apparel' is: Dress Apron Disguise Dubious Apparel refers broadly to clothing, garments, or dress of any kind. 179 / 199179) The ANTONYM of 'Endeavour' is: Inaction Effort Inexact Eat Endeavour means to try hard to do or achieve something (effort). The direct opposite concept is doing nothing, which is inaction. 180 / 199180) What is the ANTONYM of 'zealous'? Fanatic Unenthusiastic Religious Contagious Zealous means showing great energy or enthusiasm in pursuit of a cause. Its antonym is unenthusiastic or apathetic. 181 / 199181) Fill in the blank with appropriate article as required. It is ___ honor for me to address you. An No article required The A Although 'honor' starts with a consonant letter, the 'h' is silent. It begins with a vowel sound ('ah'), so the correct article is 'an'. 182 / 199182) Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition. He was sitting next ___ her. By With At To The correct idiomatic prepositional phrase indicating position directly beside someone or something is 'next to'. 183 / 199183) Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition. Each article was sold ___ over a pound. Off At In Out When referring to a specific price point or rate in British English contexts, 'sold at' is standard (e.g., 'sold at a price of over a pound'). 184 / 199184) What does the word 'ANCESTOR' mean? Collection of stars Branch of astrology Forefathers Type of receptors An ancestor is a person, typically one more remote than a grandparent, from whom one is descended (forefathers). 185 / 199185) The word 'BASHFUL' means: Skillful Embarrassed Brimful Wonderful Bashful means socially shy, easily embarrassed, or self-conscious. 186 / 199186) Pick the correct option: Dr. Umer has reached/Dr. Jamal has not. Dr. Umer has reached, Dr. Jamal has not. Dr. Umer has reached; Dr. Jamal has not. Dr. Umer has reached: Dr. Jamal has not. A semicolon is the correct punctuation mark to join two closely related independent clauses without using a coordinating conjunction. 187 / 199187) Pick the correct option: The population of China is much more than Pakistan's. The population of China is more than Pakistan. The population of China are much more than Pakistan. The population of China is much more than Pakistan. To maintain parallel structure in comparison, you must compare the 'population of China' to the 'population of Pakistan'. 'Pakistan's' acts as a possessive pronoun meaning 'Pakistan's population'. 188 / 199188) Pick the correct option: The machine which was new printed fast the stuff. The machine which was new printed the stuff fast. The machine which was new printed the stuff fastly. The machine printed the stuff which was new fast. The adjective clause 'which was new' correctly modifies 'machine'. Additionally, 'fast' functions as the adverb; 'fastly' is grammatically incorrect. 189 / 199189) Choose the correct sentence: I wish I am being a millionaire. I wish I were a millionaire. I wish I have been a millionaire. I wish I was a millionaire. When expressing a wish for an unreal or hypothetical situation in the present, standard English uses the subjunctive mood 'were' for all subjects (e.g., 'I wish I were'). 190 / 199190) The Town ___ its appearance completely since 1980. Changed Changes Has changed Is changing The preposition 'since' paired with a specific past time (1980) triggers the present perfect tense ('has changed') to describe an action continuing or having an effect up to the present. 191 / 199191) By next March, we ___ here for four years. Shall live Would have lived Shall have been living Would had been The phrase 'By next March' indicates a future milestone, and 'for four years' indicates duration. This requires the future perfect continuous tense ('shall have been living'). 192 / 199192) Fill in the blank with appropriate option: The students, accompanied by the teacher ___ entering the museum. Has Have Is Are The main subject of the sentence is the plural noun 'students'. The phrase set off by commas ('accompanied by the teacher') does not change the plurality of the subject, so the plural verb 'are' is required. 193 / 199193) Fill in the blank with appropriate option: None of us ___ beyond a mile. Has gone Were go Gone Have gone In formal grammar, 'none' (meaning not one) is treated as a singular pronoun, taking the singular verb 'has gone'. (While 'have' is sometimes used informally, 'has' is strictly correct). 194 / 199194) Fill in the blank with appropriate option: [They] ___ before 10 p.m. Shall have been slept Shall have slept Will have sleep Shall have sleeped The correct future perfect construction uses 'shall/will have' + the past participle. The correct past participle of 'sleep' is 'slept'. 195 / 199195) Choose the correct spelling: Accomodate Accommodate Accommodite Acommodate The word 'accommodate' is frequently misspelled; the correct spelling features both a double 'c' and a double 'm'. 196 / 199196) Statements: I. A ball is a sphere. II. All spheres are round. III. Some round things are mesmerizing. Conclusions: I. [Assumed: A ball is round] II. All round things are spheres. III. Some mesmerizing things are spheres. II and III are true III is true I and II are true Only I is true (Hypothetical reconstruction) Because 'All spheres are round' and 'A ball is a sphere', it logically follows that a ball is round. However, 'All round things are spheres' is a logical fallacy (affirming the consequent). We also cannot definitively link the 'some round things' that are mesmerizing specifically to spheres. 197 / 199197) I. There is sharp decline in the production of oil seeds this year.II. The Government has decided to increase the import quantum of edible oil. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect Both the statements I and II are independent causes A sharp decline in domestic production creates a supply shortage (the cause). To meet the country's demand, the government logically must import more oil (the direct effect). 198 / 199198) Statement: Employees are arriving to work more than 5 minutes late every day. Courses of Action: I. Impose a strict penalty of half a day's pay every time someone is late. II. Apply a 15 minutes' buffer. Anyone who is late more than 2 times a month after this buffer period gets docked one day's pay. Only I follows Both I and II follow Neither I nor II follows Only II follows Course of action I is too harsh and disproportionate for being just 5 minutes late. Course of action II presents a practical, balanced administrative approach that provides a reasonable buffer while effectively penalizing chronic lateness. 199 / 199199) Read the following statement. Pakistan is rich in wildlife and culture. It is home to many sorts of wildlife, from the Ibex to the Indus River Dolphin; and people from most countries in the world have made their home here. Which conclusion logically follows? No one emigrates from Pakistan. Pakistan has a diverse ecosystem and a multicultural population. The Indus River Dolphin is extinct. Pakistan has the highest number of Ibex in the world. The passage directly supports the premise that Pakistan has a rich variety of animals (diverse ecosystem) and people from around the world living there (multicultural population). The other options are unsupported stretches of logic. Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz