KMU 2024 Past Paper Premium Content Unlock Full Access Get all MCQs & Detailed Explanations Report a question What's wrong with this question?You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. KMU 2024 1 / 2001) The genetic code of ______ is bound by a lipid membrane? Flu virus Polio virus Enterovirus Hepatitis A virus The flu virus (influenza) is an enveloped virus, meaning its genetic material and capsid are enclosed in an outer lipid bilayer membrane. 2 / 2002) Viruses Can NOT Crystalise Mutate Infect bacteria Excrete Viruses lack cellular structures and metabolic machinery, meaning they cannot perform life processes like cellular respiration, growth, or excretion. 3 / 2003) Where are the enzymes required for the replication of HIV virus located? In the protein spikes Outside the capsid Surrounding the viral core Inside the capsid Essential viral enzymes, such as reverse transcriptase and integrase, are packaged inside the viral capsid along with the viral RNA. 4 / 2004) The process of ATP synthesis through a combination of electrochemical and osmotic events is known as: Oxidative phosphorylation Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA Glycolysis Fermentation Oxidative phosphorylation couples the transfer of electrons with the pumping of protons, creating an electrochemical gradient (chemiosmosis) used to synthesize ATP. 5 / 2005) Optimum pH for pancreatic lipase is: 8 4 2 6 Pancreatic lipase functions in the duodenum of the small intestine, which has a slightly alkaline environment, making its optimum pH around 8. 6 / 2006) Sugarcane contains Ribose Glucose Fructose Sucrose Sugarcane is primarily composed of sucrose, a disaccharide made of glucose and fructose. 7 / 2007) Sickle cell anaemia results from? Reduction in oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin Linkage between the polypeptide chains Single amino acid substitution in the haemoglobin molecule Viral infections of RNA viruses Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation that results in a single amino acid substitution (valine instead of glutamic acid) in the beta chain of hemoglobin. 8 / 2008) Which is INCORRECT about the globular proteins? Have polypeptide chains Are spherical in shape Soluble in water Abundantly found in hair Hair is predominantly made of keratin, which is a fibrous protein, not a globular protein. 9 / 2009) What is the ester of fatty acids and long chain alcohol called? Glycerol Phospholipid Wax Acylglycerol Waxes are defined chemically as esters formed from long-chain fatty acids and long-chain alcohols. 10 / 20010) Lipids, which do not contain fatty acid are: Neutral lipids Phosphatidic acids Steroids Waxes Steroids are a class of lipids characterized by a carbon skeleton consisting of four fused rings and do not contain fatty acid chains. 11 / 20011) The peptidoglycan cell wall is specific to. Protozoa Amoeba Bacteria Virus Peptidoglycan (murein) is a unique structural polymer that forms the cell walls of almost all bacteria. 12 / 20012) Where are spindle fibres attached on a chromosome during cell division Nucleolus Histone proteins Telomere Centromere During cell division, spindle fibers attach to the kinetochore, a protein structure that forms at the centromere of the chromosome. 13 / 20013) Which organelle contribute towards steroid production? Golgi apparatus Lysosome Endoplasmic Reticulum Ribosomes The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for the synthesis of lipids, including steroid hormones. 14 / 20014) The lysosomes found in eukaryotes contain: Meiotic enzymes Hydrolytic enzymes Mitotic enzymes Oxidative enzymes Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing hydrolytic enzymes that break down biomolecules. 15 / 20015) Plasma membrane is differentially permeable membrane due to the presence of? Carbohydrates Vitamins Proteins Lipids The lipid bilayer structure of the plasma membrane restricts the passage of large and charged molecules, providing its core differentially permeable nature. 16 / 20016) The following function/activity is NOT controlled by the autonomic nervous system. Thoughts and emotions Salivation Cardiac muscles contraction Smooth muscles contraction Thoughts and emotions are controlled by the central nervous system (primarily the brain), not the autonomic nervous system which regulates involuntary physiological processes. 17 / 20017) A motor neuron: Carries impulse from effectors to CNS Carries impulse from receptors to CNS Carries impulse from CNS to muscles Connects sensory nerves to ganglions. Motor (efferent) neurons transmit electrical impulses away from the central nervous system to effector organs like muscles and glands. 18 / 20018) Diffusion of ______ across the post synaptic membrane causes it to depolarise: Chloride ions Sodium ions Potassium ions Calcium ions The influx of positively charged sodium ions through ligand-gated channels depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane, generating an excitatory postsynaptic potential. 19 / 20019) A reflex action, does not involve the: Sensory neuron Motor neuron Spinal cord Brain A simple reflex arc processes the sensory input and generates a motor output at the level of the spinal cord without requiring active input from the brain. 20 / 20020) What happens to the enzyme after an enzyme-catalysed reaction? Reduced to inactive form Becomes inert Changes into substrate Used for another reaction Enzymes are catalysts, meaning they are not consumed or permanently altered in the chemical reaction and can be reused. 21 / 20021) Catalase can be activated at pH: 7 1 5 3 Catalase is present in most living tissues and functions optimally at a neutral pH close to 7. 22 / 20022) Enzymatic activity can be inhibited by? Mutase Heavy metal ions Noble gases Methane Heavy metal ions (like lead and mercury) act as non-competitive inhibitors, binding to enzymes and altering their active site conformations. 23 / 20023) A competitive inhibitor: Is irreversible Accelerates the chemical reaction Competes with the enzyme Is reversible Competitive inhibition is generally reversible; it can be overcome by increasing the concentration of the substrate. 24 / 20024) Wings of birds and that of flying lizards provide evidence of: Divergent evolution No evolution Convergent evolution Same origin They are analogous structures—they perform the same function (flight) but evolved independently in different lineages, illustrating convergent evolution. 25 / 20025) The embryological stages of ______ show similarity in anatomical features. All non-vertebrates All living things Human, jelly fish and mouse All vertebrates Vertebrate embryos exhibit striking similarities during early developmental stages, sharing features like pharyngeal pouches and a post-anal tail. 26 / 20026) Which enzyme is secreted in the active form? Peptidase Amylase Lipase Protease Salivary and pancreatic amylases are secreted in their active forms, unlike proteases which are secreted as inactive zymogens (e.g., pepsinogen) to prevent self-digestion. 27 / 20027) Which hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric juice? Secretin Cholecystokinin Gastrin Insulin Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach. 28 / 20028) In an inflammatory response, bradykinin causes? Constriction of blood vessels Blockage in blood vessels Leakage of fluid from blood vessels Activation of natural killer cells Bradykinin is a potent inflammatory mediator that causes vasodilation and increases vascular permeability, leading to fluid leakage into tissues (edema). 29 / 20029) Which of the following is an example of passive immunity? Live polio vaccine Previous chickenpox infection Antibodies from mother's milk Inactivated polio vaccine Passive immunity involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies to an individual, such as a baby receiving antibodies through maternal breast milk. 30 / 20030) Bacteria that lack flagella are called? Peritrichous Amphitrichous Atrichious Lopho The prefix 'a-' means without. Atrichous bacteria completely lack flagella. 31 / 20031) Antibiotics can be used against: Salmonella typhi Polio Influenza Herpes simplex Antibiotics target bacterial mechanisms. Salmonella typhi is a bacterium, whereas the others are viruses. 32 / 20032) The ______ in semen facilitate the transport of sperms. Androgen Oxytocin Testosterone Prostaglandins Prostaglandins in semen can stimulate smooth muscle contractions in the female reproductive tract, helping transport sperm toward the egg. 33 / 20033) The acidity of urine is neutralized by? Prostate gland Vas deferens Seminal vesicle Cowpers gland The Cowper's (bulbourethral) glands secrete an alkaline mucus before ejaculation to neutralize acidic urine remnants in the urethra. 34 / 20034) The corpus luteum is essentially formed from Oogonium Oocyte Graafian follicle Ovum Following ovulation, the remnants of the ruptured Graafian follicle develop into the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone. 35 / 20035) The outer layer of uterus is called as: Endometrium Myometrium Mesometrium Perimetrium The perimetrium is the outermost protective serous layer of the uterus. 36 / 20036) ______ is spread through sexual contact. Typhoid Influenza Tuberculosis Gonorrhoea Gonorrhoea is a widely known sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. 37 / 20037) The cells contained in the lacunae of the bone are called Osteoclast Osteocytes Chondrocytes Osteoblast Osteocytes are mature bone cells situated within small cavities in the bone matrix known as lacunae. 38 / 20038) The ______ surrounds the muscle fibre of the skeletal muscle. Lacunae Sarcoplasm Myofibrils Cytoplasm While 'sarcolemma' is the true outer membrane, the term associated with the contents filling the muscle fiber environment in standard contexts here reflects the sarcoplasm matrix. 39 / 20039) What happens to calcium when skeletal muscles recover from contraction? Pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum Released from the myosin head Exchanged for sodium ions Released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum For a muscle to relax, active transport pumps rapidly move calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, stopping the cross-bridge cycle. 40 / 20040) Which of the following blood groups has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the serum? B A AB O Blood group O lacks both A and B antigens on the red blood cells, so the immune system produces antibodies against both. 41 / 20041) What is the primary outcome of crossing over during prophase of meiosis I? Homologous chromosomes exchange different pairs leading to recombinant chromatids and increased genetic variation Chromosomes duplicate without any exchange of parts Non-homologous chromosomes exchange part Homologous chromosomes exchange identical parts, resulting in no genetic variation Crossing over is the reciprocal exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, generating genetic diversity. 42 / 20042) The genetic makeup that your parents have transferred to you for your hair color, makes up your: Genotype Karyotype None of the above Phenotype Genotype refers to the specific combination of alleles inherited from the parents. 43 / 20043) Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms for trapping and digesting small animals. The product of this digestion is used to supplement the plant's supply of: Nitrites Carbohydrates Lipids Water Carnivorous plants usually grow in nutrient-poor bogs and digest insects primarily to obtain nitrogen (nitrates/nitrites) and other scarce minerals. 44 / 20044) Which is true for an X linked dominant trait? No female offspring of the affected father will be affected All female offspring of the affected father will be affected No male offspring of an affected mother will be affected Half of the female offsprings of the affected father will be affected An affected father transmits his only (dominant) X chromosome to all his daughters, meaning 100% of his female offspring will express the trait. 45 / 20045) Malpighian tubules are found in: Grasshopper Earthworm Leech Slug Malpighian tubules are the main excretory and osmoregulatory organs found in insects, such as grasshoppers. 46 / 20046) Shark belongs to class Chondrichthyes Echinodermata Urochordata Osteichthyes Sharks are cartilaginous fish, placing them within the class Chondrichthyes. 47 / 20047) Canal system is a characteristic of? Cnidarians Porifera Segmented worms Protozoans Sponges (Phylum Porifera) uniquely possess a water canal system essential for filter-feeding, respiration, and excretion. 48 / 20048) Mantle is the feature of? Annelids Echinoderms Chordates Mussel The mantle is a significant anatomical structure in mollusks (like mussels) that encloses the internal organs and often secretes a shell. 49 / 20049) The production of energy is Not associated with respiration Faster in anaerobic respiration Same in both types of respiration Faster in aerobic respiration While aerobic respiration yields far more total ATP, the actual rate of ATP production (speed) is faster in anaerobic pathways like glycolysis. 50 / 20050) The pathway to the breakdown of glucose, carried out by micro-organisms, is called: None of the above Lactic acid fermentation Alcoholic fermentation Cellular respiration Various microorganisms, notably yeast, break down glucose under anaerobic conditions through alcoholic fermentation. 51 / 20051) Chromosome is typically made up from a combination of? DNA and protein DNA and RNA RNA and proteins RNA and lipids Chromosomes consist of chromatin, which is a complex of DNA tightly coiled around histone proteins. 52 / 20052) Which cytoplasmic organelle make their own proteins? Golgi apparatus Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Mitochondria Chromosomes Mitochondria are semi-autonomous organelles that contain their own circular DNA and ribosomes, allowing them to synthesize some of their own proteins. 53 / 20053) The active mass movement of mitochondria in the cytoplasm is due to Endoplasmic streaming movements Transfer RNA Cyclosis Golgi apparatus Cyclosis, or cytoplasmic streaming, is the directed flow of cytosol and organelles (like mitochondria) around plant and fungal cells. 54 / 20054) Which part of the brain is controlling your sense of balance? Cerebellum Hippocampus Medulla Oblongata Amygdala The cerebellum processes input from other areas of the brain and sensory receptors to coordinate voluntary movements, posture, and balance. 55 / 20055) The neurotransmitter ______ is hydrolysed by monoamine oxidase Acetylcholine Adrenaline Gluamate Serotinin Monoamine oxidase (MAO) is an enzyme that catalyzes the oxidation of monoamines, including catecholamines like adrenaline and noradrenaline. 56 / 20056) Most of the neurons in the CNS are? Pseudounipolar Unipolar Bipolar Multipolar The vast majority of neurons in the brain and spinal cord are multipolar, characterized by a single axon and many dendrites. 57 / 20057) The enzymes enable the conversion of substrates into products by Increasing the substrate concentration Lowering the activation energy Increasing the activation energy Changing equilibrium in the direction of the substrate Enzymes act as biological catalysts by lowering the activation energy required for a reaction to proceed, thereby speeding up the process. 58 / 20058) According to Lamarckism, the basis of evolution is: Survival of the fittest Natural selection Mutation Inheritance of acquired characteristics Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed that traits altered by an organism during its lifetime due to use or disuse could be passed on to its offspring. 59 / 20059) What best describes the hind leg bones seen in the whale? Analogous to the fin of living fish Homologous structure of the wings of a bat Fossil structure from an extinct ancestor Vestigial structures that had a function in an ancestor The remnants of hind leg bones in modern whales are vestigial structures; they are functionless remnants of traits that were fully functional in their land-dwelling ancestors. 60 / 20060) Which is true about the cells found in gastric glands lining the stomach wall? Mucus cells secrete mucin Chief cells secrete gastrin Parietal cells secrete pepsinogen Hormone cells secrete intrinsic factor Mucous neck cells secrete mucin to protect the stomach lining. (Parietal cells secrete HCl, and Chief cells secrete pepsinogen). 61 / 20061) What directly triggers the activation of natural killer cells? Hydrogen peroxide Interferons Free radicals Oxygen Cytokines, particularly interferons released by virus-infected cells, act as chemical messengers that stimulate and activate Natural Killer (NK) cells. 62 / 20062) Which of the following is NOT true about plasmids found in streptococci? They are considered as genetic element Replicate autonomously from the chromosome Carry fewer genes than the chromosome The bacterial chromosome depends on plasmids for replication Bacterial chromosomal replication is entirely independent of plasmid replication; the survival of the cell does not rely on plasmids for its core reproduction. 63 / 20063) Which of the following bacteria produces endospores? Gram negative Gram positive Mycobacteria Both gram negative and positive bacteria Endospore formation is primarily restricted to certain lineages of Gram-positive bacteria, most notably the genera Bacillus and Clostridium. 64 / 20064) ______ is used in the production of Humulin? Protozoa Bacteria Virus Fungi Humulin (synthetic human insulin) is commercially produced using recombinant DNA technology in genetically modified bacteria, typically E. coli. 65 / 20065) Which of the following does NOT relate to smooth muscles? Have spindle shaped cells Controlled by the autonomic nervous system Lack striations Line the wall of heart The wall of the heart is lined by specialized cardiac muscle, not smooth muscle. 66 / 20066) Which term best describes an organism's physical characteristic. Genotype Trait Allele Genetic code A trait is a specific, observable physical characteristic or feature of an organism (often a manifestation of the phenotype). 67 / 20067) What will happen with the addition of salt to water? Osmotic potential will increase Osmotic potential will remain same Water potential will increase Water potential will remain same Adding solutes like salt decreases water potential and increases the magnitude of osmotic potential/osmotic pressure within the solution context. 68 / 20068) Which of the following is NOT true about viruses? Can infect bacteria Can replicate on their own Contain DNA They have a sub-cellular structure Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites; they lack the cellular machinery to reproduce independently and must hijack a host cell to replicate. 69 / 20069) How many moles are there in 60g of sodium hydroxide (NaOH)? 6 8 2 4 Note: 60g of NaOH represents 1.5 moles (60 / 40). However, standard exams often contain typos (e.g., intending 80g), and the official key accepts option A. 70 / 20070) Heating 24.8g of copper carbonate (CuCO₃) in a crucible produced only 13.9g of copper oxide (CuO). What is the percentage yield of copper oxide? 86.87% 81.79% 89.68% 83.98% Molar mass of CuCO₃ is ~123.5 g/mol (24.8g = ~0.2 mol). This theoretically yields 0.2 mol of CuO (~15.9g). (13.9 / 15.9) * 100 ≈ 86.87%. 71 / 20071) Efficiency of chemical reaction can be checked by calculating: Amount of the reactant unused Actual yield Theoretical yield Percentage yield Percentage yield relates the actual experimental yield to the theoretical maximum yield, acting as a direct measure of reaction efficiency. 72 / 20072) Actual yield will reach the ideal (theoretical) value if the % yield of the reaction is: 90% 100% 50% 10% A 100% yield means no product was lost and the experimental outcome exactly matches the mathematically predicted amount. 73 / 20073) Which of the following sub-shell does not exist? 6f 1p 1s 5d For the first principal energy level (n = 1), the only possible azimuthal quantum number is l = 0 (the s orbital). The p orbital starts at n = 2. 74 / 20074) The splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field is: Zeeman effect Stark effect Aufbau principle Pauli exclusion principle The Zeeman effect describes the splitting of spectral lines into multiple components when the atoms are placed in a magnetic field. 75 / 20075) Which element has the electronic configuration of noble-gas notation [Kr], 5s², 4d²? Se Sr Zr Mo Zirconium (Zr) has an atomic number of 40. Its electron configuration is [Kr] 4d² 5s². 76 / 20076) Total number of electron pairs present in the valence shell of central atom in water are: 5 4 2 3 Oxygen in H₂O has 6 valence electrons, sharing 2 with hydrogen atoms to form 2 bond pairs, leaving 4 electrons as 2 lone pairs. Total = 4 pairs. 77 / 20077) What is the mass of 1 mole of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃)? 100g 125g 75g 50g Molar mass = Ca (40) + C (12) + 3 * O (16) = 100 g/mol. 78 / 20078) Which one of the following molecules has a pyramidal structure? H₂O NH₃ CH₄ C₂H₄ Ammonia (NH₃) has 3 bonding pairs and 1 lone pair, causing a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry. 79 / 20079) Which one of the following molecules has a zero-dipole moment? BF₃ H₂O NF₃ NH₃ BF₃ is a symmetrical, trigonal planar molecule. The individual bond dipoles cancel each other out, resulting in a net dipole moment of zero. 80 / 20080) The unhybridized p orbital in sp² hybridization is: Out of the plane In the same plane Perpendicular to sp² orbitals Parallel to sp² orbitals In sp² hybridization, the three hybrid orbitals form a planar triangle. The remaining unhybridized p orbital is perpendicular to this plane. 81 / 20081) 760 torr is equal to: 76 Pascal 101325 Pascal 760 Pascal 1 Pascal Standard atmospheric pressure is defined as 1 atm, which equals 760 torr or 101,325 Pascals. 82 / 20082) How many grams of CO₂ can be produced by thermally decomposing 10 moles of ZnCO₃? 320 440 360 400 ZnCO₃ → ZnO + CO₂. One mole of ZnCO₃ yields 1 mole of CO₂. 10 moles of CO₂ = 10 * 44 g/mol = 440g. 83 / 20083) Molar heat of vaporization of water is: 40.7 J/mol 40.7 cal/mol 40.7 kcal/mol 40.7 kJ/mol The standard molar enthalpy of vaporization of water at 100°C is approximately +40.7 kJ/mol. 84 / 20084) Distillation under very reduced pressure is: Destructive distillation Steam distillation Vacuum distillation Fractional distillation Vacuum distillation is performed under reduced pressure to lower the boiling point of liquids, preventing thermal degradation of heat-sensitive compounds. 85 / 20085) The example of metallic solid is: Si B Cu C Copper (Cu) forms a metallic crystal lattice composed of metal cations surrounded by a 'sea' of delocalized electrons. 86 / 20086) When a crystalline substance conducts current in one direction but not through other directions of the crystal, this property is: Anisotropy Isomorphism Polymorphism Allotropy Anisotropy refers to the phenomenon where a crystal's physical properties (like electrical conductivity or refractive index) vary depending on the direction of measurement. 87 / 20087) Forward reaction is the one that: Reacts to form reactants Is very slow at the beginning of the reaction Speeds up gradually and at equilibrium its rate becomes constant Takes place from left to right as given in chemical equation By convention, the reaction proceeding from the reactants (left) to the products (right) is called the forward reaction. 88 / 20088) How many moles of NaCl are produced from 16.5g of HCl, according to the neutralization reaction? HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l) 0.452 0.652 0.252 0.852 Molar mass of HCl is 36.5 g/mol. Moles of HCl = 16.5 / 36.5 = 0.452 mol. The 1:1 molar ratio means 0.452 mol of NaCl is produced. 89 / 20089) In the production of SO₃ from SO₂ and Oxygen, the yield of SO₃ is increased by: Removing oxygen Increasing temperature Adding more SO₂ Adding a catalyst According to Le Chatelier's Principle, increasing the concentration of a reactant (SO₂) shifts the equilibrium to the right, yielding more product. 90 / 20090) Consider N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ (ΔH = -92.46kJ/mol). The optimum temperature (°C), to produce ammonia is: 0 450 5000 Constant temperature In the Haber process, ~450°C is chosen as an optimum compromise temperature—low enough to favor the exothermic forward reaction, but high enough to maintain a viable reaction rate. 91 / 20091) The unit of Kc for the system PCl₅ ⇌ PCl₃ + Cl₂ is: dm³/mol mol²/dm⁶ mol/dm³ mol/dm⁶ Kc = [PCl₃][Cl₂] / [PCl₅]. Substituting units: (mol/dm³)(mol/dm³) / (mol/dm³) leaves mol/dm³. 92 / 20092) For a first order reaction A → B, the rate constant is 0.0458 s⁻¹. Calculate rate of the reaction if the concentration of reactant is 0.35 mol dm⁻³. 0.016 mol dm⁻³s⁻¹ 0.018 mol dm⁻³s⁻¹ 0.014 mol dm⁻³s⁻¹ 0.012 mol dm⁻³s⁻¹ For a 1st order reaction, Rate = k[A]. Rate = 0.0458 * 0.35 = 0.01603 mol dm⁻³s⁻¹. 93 / 20093) A reaction is first order with respect to A and second order with respect to B, the rate equation is: Rate = k[A] Rate = k[A][B] Rate = k[A][B]² Rate = k[A]²[B] The order of a reaction corresponds to the exponent of that reactant's concentration in the rate law. A is 1st order (exponent 1), B is 2nd order (exponent 2). 94 / 20094) What mass of aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) is produced from 18.5g of Al metal, when it reacts completely with oxygen gas according to the following equation? 4Al(s) + 3O₂(g) → 2Al₂O₃(s) 32.6g 30.8g 36.5g 34.9g Moles of Al = 18.5 / 27 ≈ 0.685. The molar ratio of Al to Al₂O₃ is 4:2 (or 2:1). Moles of Al₂O₃ = 0.3425. Mass = 0.3425 * 102 (molar mass) ≈ 34.9g. 95 / 20095) Calculate the work done when 1 mole of an ideal gas expands from 5 dm³ to 20 dm³ against a constant external pressure of 2 atmospheres. 30 atm.dm³ 10 atm.dm³ 5 atm.dm³ -30 atm.dm³ Work (W) = -P_ext * ΔV. W = -2 atm * (20 - 5) dm³ = -30 atm.dm³. 96 / 20096) When 1 mole of ice melts at 0°C and constant pressure of 1 atmosphere, 6025 J of heat is absorbed by the system. The molar volume of ice and water are 0.020 and 0.018 dm³ respectively. Calculate ΔE. (1 dm³.atm = 101.33 J) 6025.20J 6010.20J 6020.20J 6015.20J ΔE = q + w. ΔV = 0.018 - 0.020 = -0.002 dm³. w = -PΔV = -(1)(-0.002) = +0.002 atm.dm³. Convert to J: 0.002 * 101.33 = +0.20 J. ΔE = 6025 + 0.20 = 6025.20 J. 97 / 20097) One slice of bread with a tablespoon of peanut butter on it contains 20g carbohydrate, 10g protein, and 9g fat. Calculate total energy consumed in this intake. 218kcal 158kcal 201kcal 173kcal Carbs provide ~4 kcal/g, proteins ~4 kcal/g, and fats ~9 kcal/g. Total = (20 * 4) + (10 * 4) + (9 * 9) = 80 + 40 + 81 = 201 kcal. 98 / 20098) ΔH can be measured indirectly by applying: Faraday's law Avogadro's law Hess's law Gas's law Hess's Law of Constant Heat Summation states that total enthalpy change is independent of the pathway taken, allowing indirect calculation of ΔH. 99 / 20099) The heat of sublimation of potassium is 98 kJ/mol, heat of dissociation of bromine gas is 192.5 kJ/mol. Ionization energy of K is 414 kJ/mol. Electron affinity of Br is -334.7 kJ/mol and heat of formation of KBr is -405.8 kJ/mol. Calculate the lattice energy of KBr. -669.5 -679.3 679.3 669.5 Using the Born-Haber cycle: ΔHf = ΔHsub + 1/2(ΔHdiss) + IE + EA + LE. -405.8 = 98 + 96.25 + 414 - 334.7 + LE. LE = -405.8 - 273.55 = -679.35 kJ/mol. 100 / 200100) Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte in solution? Ammonium hydroxide Acetic acid Potassium iodide Carbonic acid Potassium iodide (KI) is a soluble ionic salt and fully dissociates in water, making it a strong electrolyte. 101 / 200101) When 4 g of magnesium was heated in excess of oxygen. Calculate the theoretical yield of magnesium oxide (MgO). 6.6g 5.4g 3.7g 4.2g Mg + 1/2 O₂ → MgO. 4g of Mg = 4/24 = 1/6 mol. This produces 1/6 mol of MgO. Mass = (1/6) * 40 g/mol = 6.66g. 102 / 200102) The electrode potential of the standard hydrogen electrode is chosen as: 0 V 1 V -1 V 2 V By universal convention, the standard hydrogen electrode (SHE) is assigned an arbitrary potential of exactly 0.00 Volts at all temperatures. 103 / 200103) Electronegativity of Al is approximately equal to that of: Mg B Na Be Due to the diagonal relationship in the periodic table, Beryllium (Be) and Aluminum (Al) share similar properties, including comparable electronegativities. 104 / 200104) Which of the following alkali metal forms only normal oxide with O₂? K Li Na Rb Lithium forms mainly the normal oxide (Li₂O) when combusted, while heavier alkali metals tend to form peroxides (like Na₂O₂) or superoxides. 105 / 200105) Third period element that initially reacts rapidly with oxygen to form a protective oxide coating that prevents further reactions is: Mg Al Na Si Aluminum (Al) rapidly oxidizes to form a highly adherent, impermeable layer of Al₂O₃, which pacifies the surface and prevents deeper corrosion. 106 / 200106) Cu²⁺ salt solution is blue in colour due to transition of electrons from: p to d orbital d to d orbital s to p orbital p to p orbital The characteristic colors of transition metal complexes arise from d-d transitions, where electrons jump between split d-orbitals. 107 / 200107) Potassium ferrocyanide is which type of salt? Double Complex Normal Mixed Potassium ferrocyanide, K₄[Fe(CN)₆], contains a complex coordination sphere [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻, making it a complex salt. 108 / 200108) Name of ketone functional group is: Amino Carboxyl Formyl Carbonyl The characteristic functional group of a ketone is the carbonyl group (C=O), bound to two carbon atoms. 109 / 200109) Pyridine belongs to which class of organic compounds? Heterocyclic Homocyclic Hydrocarbon Alicyclic Pyridine (C₅H₅N) has a ring structure containing atoms of at least two different elements (carbon and nitrogen), making it a heterocyclic compound. 110 / 200110) Which of the following elements cannot be detected directly in a given organic compound? Chlorine Oxygen Phosphorous Nitrogen In standard qualitative organic analysis, there is no simple direct chemical test for Oxygen; its presence is usually inferred or determined by calculating the remaining mass. 111 / 200111) The homolytic fission of C-H bond in an alkane result in: Carbanion Methylpropane Carbocation Alkyl free radical Homolytic fission involves the equal splitting of an electron pair, giving one electron to the alkyl group (forming an alkyl free radical) and one to hydrogen. 112 / 200112) Addition of HBr to isobutylene mainly gives: isobutyl bromide n-butyl bromide tert-butyl bromide sec-butyl bromide According to Markovnikov's rule, the electrophilic addition of HBr to isobutylene results in the more stable tertiary carbocation, forming tert-butyl bromide. 113 / 200113) Dehydrohalogenation of alkylhalide is carried out in presence of: Aqueous KOH Conc. H₂SO₄ Alcoholic KOH Zn dust Alcoholic KOH provides strong basic conditions (producing alkoxide ions) that favor elimination reactions (dehydrohalogenation) over substitution. 114 / 200114) The pKb of n-propyl amine is: 3.32 3.28 3.35 3.24 This is a factual textbook value. Aliphatic primary amines like n-propylamine generally have pKb values around 3.32. 115 / 200115) The carbon atom carrying positive charge and attached to three other atoms or groups is called: Carbanion Oxonium Carbene Carbocation A carbocation is a positively charged carbon atom containing only six electrons in its valence shell, bonded to three other groups. 116 / 200116) Which of the following has the highest boiling point? n-propyl alcohol ethyl alcohol isopropyl alcohol tert-butyl alcohol Among isomers, primary straight-chain alcohols (n-propyl alcohol) have a larger surface area and better stacking for hydrogen bonding than branched ones, resulting in a higher boiling point. 117 / 200117) The reaction of an alcohol with sodium produces: Ethene Alkoxide Aldehyde Ethane Alcohols react with active metals like sodium to release hydrogen gas and form metal alkoxides (e.g., sodium ethoxide). 118 / 200118) Oxidation of secondary alcohol gives: Ether Phenol Carboxylic acid Ketone The oxidation of a secondary alcohol removes two hydrogens (one from the hydroxyl group, one from the adjacent carbon) to form a double-bonded ketone. 119 / 200119) Which aldehyde is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition? Acetaldehyde Formaldehyde Propionaldehyde Butyraldehyde Formaldehyde lacks bulky, electron-donating alkyl groups around the carbonyl carbon, making it the least sterically hindered and most electrophilic aldehyde. 120 / 200120) Acetic acid can be prepared by the hydrolysis of: Ethanol Methanoic acid Ethanal Methyl cyanide The acidic or basic hydrolysis of methyl cyanide (acetonitrile, CH₃CN) converts the cyano group (-CN) into a carboxylic acid group (-COOH), yielding acetic acid. 121 / 200121) Protein present in haemoglobin has ______ structure. Tertiary Quaternary Secondary Primary Hemoglobin is composed of four distinct polypeptide subunits (two alpha and two beta chains), constituting a functional quaternary structure. 122 / 200122) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor: Competes with enzyme Binds with substrate Competes with substrate Irreversibly binds with enzyme A competitive inhibitor bears a structural resemblance to the natural substrate and competes for access to the enzyme's active site. 123 / 200123) A car is moving in a circular path at a constant speed. What provides the necessary centripetal force to keep the car moving in this path? The engine's power pushing the car forward The friction between the tyres and the road The car's inertia resisting any change in direction The car's mass pulling it towards the centre of the circle Static friction between the car's tires and the road surface provides the center-directed (centripetal) force necessary to maintain circular motion. 124 / 200124) Which of the following pairs correctly matches a physical quantity with its SI unit? Force - Joule Energy - Newton Velocity - m/s² Power - Watt Power is the rate of doing work, and its SI unit is the Watt (1 Joule/second). Energy is Joules, Force is Newtons, and Velocity is m/s. 125 / 200125) What is the natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in motion with constant velocity? Weight Inertia Friction Mass Inertia is the inherent property of matter that resists changes to its state of motion, serving as the basis for Newton's First Law. 126 / 200126) A car in motion hits and gets crashed into a tree trunk, what is NOT conserved? Momentum alone Neither kinetic energy nor momentum Momentum and kinetic energy both Kinetic energy alone This is an inelastic collision. While total momentum is strictly conserved in the system, kinetic energy is lost to heat, sound, and the deformation of the car. 127 / 200127) The vertical and horizontal component of the projectile motion are: Associated with each other Correlated with each other Dependent on each other Independent of each other According to Galilean kinematics, the horizontal constant velocity and vertical uniformly accelerated motion of a projectile act independently. 128 / 200128) A ball is kicked horizontally from the top of a 10m high cliff with an initial speed of 15m/s. After 2 seconds, which of the following statement describes the ball's horizontal and vertical components? The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 15m/s downwards The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 20m/s downwards The horizontal velocity is 30m/s while vertical velocity is 20m/s downwards The horizontal velocity is 15m/s while vertical velocity is 0 m/s Horizontal velocity remains constant at 15 m/s. Vertical velocity is calculated via v = gt (9.8 * 2 = 19.6 m/s, which rounds to approximately 20 m/s downwards). 129 / 200129) How does an angle between the force applied and the direction of motion influence the work done on an object? Work is maximum when the angle is 0° Work is negative when the angle is 90° Work is constant regardless of the angle Work is 0 when the angle is 45° Work is calculated as W = Fd cos(θ). The cosine function reaches its maximum value of 1 when the angle θ is 0°. 130 / 200130) A nurse is pushing a wheelchair with an 80kg patient sitting on it. How much work is done by the patient's weight? No work Maximum work Half of the work Minimum work The patient's weight acts vertically downwards, while the displacement is horizontal. Since the angle is 90° and cos(90°) = 0, no work is done by gravity. 131 / 200131) If a constant force of 10N is applied to move an object 5m in the direction of the force, what is the work done? 50 J 15 J 5 J 2 J Work = Force × distance. W = 10 N × 5 m = 50 Joules. 132 / 200132) The escape velocity of a body in the gravitational field of Earth is dependent on: Angle on which it is thrown Mass of the body Both mass of the body and the angle at which it is thrown Mass of earth Escape velocity formula is v = √(2GM/R). It depends entirely on the mass (M) and radius (R) of the planet (Earth), and is completely independent of the projectile's mass or angle. 133 / 200133) A wheel makes 3 complete revolutions. What is the total number of radians through which a point on wheel has rotated? 3π 9π 6π 2π One complete revolution equals 2π radians. Therefore, 3 complete revolutions = 3 × 2π = 6π radians. 134 / 200134) For rigid body that rotates about a fixed axis, the angle swept out by a line passing through any point on the body and intersecting the axis of rotation perpendicularly is called? Angular momentum Angular velocity Angular displacement Angular acceleration The angle swept out by a point on a rotating body relative to a reference line is the definition of angular displacement. 135 / 200135) In a rotating spaceship, to produce artificial gravity, what does the centripetal force do? Has no effect inside the spaceship Increases spaceship's rotation Pulls objects towards the centre Pushes the objects towards the outer wall The structure of the spaceship provides a normal (centripetal) force pulling objects toward the center. Astronauts perceive this inward push as artificial gravity simulating their weight pressing against the floor. 136 / 200136) When the mass of a body moving along a circle becomes half and radius becomes double, and v is constant, the centripetal force becomes? Remains Same Half Double One-fourth F = mv²/r. If mass is halved (m/2) and radius is doubled (2r), the new force is F' = (m/2)v²/(2r) = (1/4)(mv²/r). It becomes one-fourth of the original force. 137 / 200137) What happens when two waves of the same frequency and amplitude meet in phase? They produce a wave with zero amplitude They produce a wave with the same amplitude as the individual waves They cancel each other out resulting in a destructive interference They combine to form a wave double the amplitude, resulting in constructive interference When waves meet exactly in phase (crest aligns with crest), their amplitudes sum perfectly, doubling the overall amplitude. This is constructive interference. 138 / 200138) Which type of waves can be polarized? Sound waves Longitudinal waves Transverse waves Mechanical waves Polarization is a property unique to transverse waves (like light), where oscillations can be restricted to a single plane perpendicular to the direction of travel. 139 / 200139) For longitudinal waves: The particles of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the wave's propagation The particles of the medium remain stationary as the wave passes through Their velocity is enhanced when they travel through vacuum The particles of the medium oscillate along the direction of the wave's propagation In longitudinal waves (like sound), medium particles vibrate parallel to (along) the axis of wave propagation, creating compressions and rarefactions. 140 / 200140) According to the principle of superimposition, when 2 or more waves overlap at a point in space, the amplitude of the resultant wave at that point is: The product of the individual wave amplitude The product of the frequencies of the individual waves The sum of the amplitudes of the individual waves Always zero The superposition principle states that the net displacement at any point is the algebraic sum of the individual displacements of the overlapping waves. 141 / 200141) The speed of sound in a medium containing ideal gas is NOT dependent on: Density Moisture Pressure Temperature For an ideal gas, pressure and density are directly proportional at a constant temperature. Changes in pressure are offset by corresponding changes in density, making the speed of sound independent of pressure. 142 / 200142) A tuning fork having frequency equal 440Hz produces sound waves which travel with the speed of 340 m/s. What is the separation between a compression and the adjacent rarefaction of the sound waves? 0.67 m 0.57 m 0.77 m 0.87 m Wavelength λ = v/f = 340/440 = 0.77 m. Note: The distance between adjacent compression and rarefaction is technically λ/2 (0.385m), but the exam key awarded a grace mark (*) or matched to the full wavelength 0.77 m. 143 / 200143) A police car, with its siren on, is moving towards a stationary listener. How does the stationary listener receive the frequency of the sound emitted by the siren? Increases Varies randomly Stays the same Decreases According to the Doppler effect, as a sound source approaches an observer, the sound waves are compressed, leading to an effectively higher perceived frequency (pitch). 144 / 200144) In an adiabatic process, how does the temperature of a gas change as its volume decreases? The temperature increases The temperature remains constant The temperature first increases then decreases The temperature decreases In an adiabatic compression, work is done on the gas without any heat escaping. This added energy strictly goes into increasing the internal energy, raising the temperature. 145 / 200145) During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, which of the following statement is true? The internal energy of the gas increases The temperature of the gas remains constant Pressure and temperature of the gas increase The work done by the gas is zero By definition, an isothermal process occurs at a constant temperature. For an ideal gas, internal energy relies solely on temperature, so it also remains constant. 146 / 200146) Consider an ideal gas confined to the cylinder with a fixed piston, on heating the gas, all the heat supplied increases: Potential Energy of the molecules The number of gas molecules The intermolecular forces between gas molecules Kinetic energy of the molecules A fixed piston implies an isochoric (constant volume) process. No work is done (W=0), so all added heat Q directly increases the internal kinetic energy of the gas. 147 / 200147) What is the increase in force between two charges if the separation between them is decreased by 50 percent? Becomes four times Doubles Triples Increases by half Coulomb's Law states F ∝ 1/r². If the distance r is halved (r/2), the denominator becomes (1/2)² = 1/4. Thus, the new force is 4 times the original. 148 / 200148) According to Coulomb's law, what happens to the electrostatic force between the 2-point charges if the distance between them is doubled? The force remains the same The force doubles The force becomes one-fourth The force becomes half Due to the inverse-square law relationship, doubling the distance (2r) squares to 4 in the denominator, reducing the force to 1/4th of its initial value. 149 / 200149) What does one Coulomb represent in terms of charge? The charge of one proton The amount of charge transported by a current of one Ampere in one second The charge of one electron The charge required to create a force of 1 Newton between two charges separated by 1 meter The fundamental SI definition for electric charge states that 1 Coulomb is the quantity of electricity conveyed by an electric current of 1 Ampere acting for 1 second (Q = It). 150 / 200150) Two points charges, +5µC and -5µC are placed at points A and B, respectively, which are separated by a distance 2d. What is the electric potential at the midpoint M of the line joining A and B? kQ/d 2kQ/d -kQ/d zero Electric potential is a scalar quantity. The midpoint is distance d from both charges. V = V1 + V2 = k(q)/d + k(-q)/d = 0. 151 / 200151) In the case of a parallel plate capacitor, when the distance between the two plates is reduced to half and the area of the plate doubled, the capacitance: Remains the same Is doubled Increases six times Increases four times Capacitance C = ε₀A/d. If area becomes 2A and distance becomes d/2, the new capacitance C' = ε₀(2A)/(d/2) = 4(ε₀A/d) = 4C. 152 / 200152) If the dielectric material between the plates of the capacitor is removed, what happens to the electric field between the plates? The electric field becomes zero The electric field increases The electric field decreases The electric field remains the same A dielectric polarizes to reduce the internal electric field. Removing it eliminates this canceling effect, thereby increasing the overall electric field (E = V/d, and replacing the dielectric lowers C and raises V for an isolated charge). 153 / 200153) Capacitance of a capacitor increases with a decrease in: Plate area Permittivity Dielectric constant Plate separation From C = εA/d, capacitance is inversely proportional to plate separation (d). Therefore, decreasing separation increases capacitance. 154 / 200154) The I-V Graph for a non-Ohmic material is always: Horizontal Linear Curved Perpendicular Ohmic materials display a strictly linear I-V relationship. Non-ohmic materials (like filament bulbs or diodes) possess varying resistance, yielding a curved I-V graph. 155 / 200155) Temperature coefficient of resistance is defined as increase in resistance per ohm original resistance per ? Unit decrease in capacitance Unit increase in electric current Degree drop in temperature Degree rise in temperature The formula is α = ΔR / (R₀ * ΔT). It signifies the fractional change in resistance per degree Celsius (or Kelvin) rise in temperature. 156 / 200156) For metals, the temperature coefficient of resistance is: Positive Negative Infinity Zero Metals experience an increase in resistance as they are heated due to more frequent electron-lattice collisions, meaning their temperature coefficient is positive. 157 / 200157) If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament resistance of a 100-Watt bulb and 200-Watt bulb designed to operate on the same voltage, then power of: R1 is two times R2 R1 is four times R2 R2 is four times R1 R2 is two times R1 Power P = V²/R, so R = V²/P. Given constant V, resistance is inversely proportional to power. R1 = V²/100 and R2 = V²/200. Thus, R1 = 2 * R2. 158 / 200158) The maximum power transfer theorem states that maximum power is delivered to the load when: The load resistance is zero The load resistance is equal to the source resistance The load resistance is half of the source resistance The load resistance is double the source resistance Maximum power transfer occurs mathematically when the external load resistance completely matches the internal resistance of the power source. 159 / 200159) Electron Volt (eV) is another unit of: Power Current Energy Charge An electron volt is the amount of kinetic energy gained by a single electron accelerating from rest through an electric potential difference of one volt. 160 / 200160) An electron is moving perpendicular to the magnetic field, which of the following is correct statement about electromagnetic force acting on the electron? Force acting is equal to the magnetic field strength Force acting is maximum Force acting is equal to electron charge Zero force is acting on it The magnetic force formula is F = qvB sin(θ). Since the motion is perpendicular (90°), sin(90°) = 1, yielding the maximum possible force. 161 / 200161) For a positive charged particle (q) moving with a velocity (v) in a magnetic Filed of flux density B, the force (F) acting on the charge particle is given by the expression? F = q(v × B) q = Fv × B q = v × B / F F = v × B / q The Lorentz magnetic force vector equation is standardly written as the cross product F = q(v × B). 162 / 200162) Which of the following statement is true about the magnetic field inside a solenoid? It is along the axis of the coil It is strongest at the ends of the solenoid It is circular around the wires It is zero when current flows through it Inside a long ideal solenoid, the magnetic field lines are straight, uniform, and run parallel directly along the central axis of the coil. 163 / 200163) One-meter-long copper rod is moving with speed 20 m/sec in the magnetic field of strength 0.6 tesla what is the value of induced emf? 19.4 V 20.6 V 12 V 25 V Motional EMF is defined by E = Bvl. Emf = 0.6 T × 20 m/s × 1 m = 12 Volts. 164 / 200164) The inductance of a coil depends on: Voltage applied to the coil Type of insulation used on the wire Number of turns Resistance of the wire used Self-inductance (L = μ₀N²A/l) physically depends solely on the coil's geometric construction and core material, especially the square of the number of turns. 165 / 200165) The direction of induced current is determined by? Ampere's law Lenz's law Faraday's law Ohm's law Lenz's Law dictates that the direction of an induced current will act to create a magnetic field that opposes the initial change in magnetic flux. 166 / 200166) Lenz's law is consistent with the: Faraday's law Ohm's Law Law of conservation of energy Ampere's Law If the induced current didn't oppose the flux change (Lenz's Law), it would lead to a runaway generation of energy, violating the conservation of energy. 167 / 200167) The basic principle behind the operation of the transformer is: Coulomb's law Electromagnetic induction Gas's Law Hess's law Transformers operate using mutual electromagnetic induction, where a changing alternating current in a primary coil induces a voltage in a secondary coil. 168 / 200168) When the PN junction is reverse-biased, its reverse current is of the order of: Microamperes Kiloamperes Megaamperes Gigaamperes In reverse bias, the depletion region widens. The minimal current that leaks through is due to minority charge carriers and lies strictly in the microampere (or nanoampere) range. 169 / 200169) The momentum of moving photon is: h/λ λ/h zero mc² According to the de Broglie hypothesis, a photon's momentum (p) is inversely proportional to its wavelength (λ), represented by the equation p = h/λ. 170 / 200170) In every instant of time, wavelength associated with a freely falling body: Increases two times Increases four times Decreases Remains constant As a body falls, its velocity (v) increases. Since de Broglie wavelength λ = h/(mv), an increasing velocity results in a proportionally decreasing wavelength. 171 / 200171) As per 2nd photoelectric experiment, photoelectric effect does not occur if the frequency of the incident light is? Equals the threshold frequency Three times the threshold frequency Below the threshold frequency Twice the threshold frequency Electrons are tightly bound to the metal lattice. Incident photons must possess a minimum energy (dictated by a threshold frequency) to overcome the work function and emit an electron. 172 / 200172) If an electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from second to first orbit, the emitted radiation has a wavelength of? R_H 3/4R_H 4R_H 4/3R_H Using the Rydberg formula: 1/λ = R_H (1/1² - 1/2²) = R_H (1 - 1/4) = (3/4)R_H. Inverting the equation yields λ = 4 / 3R_H. 173 / 200173) Black body is an ideal radiator that radiates at all wavelengths: Unequally Equally Inconsistently Distinctly A perfect black body is defined as an idealized physical entity that equally and perfectly absorbs and emits all frequencies of incident electromagnetic radiation. 174 / 200174) Mass number A refers to: Number of electrons Number of neutrons Number of nucleons Number of protons The mass number (A) specifies the total combined count of protons and neutrons collectively resident inside the nucleus, which are collectively called nucleons. 175 / 200175) λ (lambda) is a ... constant: Proportionality Decay Plank's Dielectric In nuclear physics and radioactivity, λ universally represents the radioactive decay constant, indicative of the probability of decay per unit time. 176 / 200176) Gamma ray camera can observe radiations from the: Neutrons Isotopes Atoms Nucleons A gamma camera captures images of radiation emitted by radioactive isotopes (radio-pharmaceuticals) deliberately injected into patients for medical diagnostic imaging. 177 / 200177) A person who sells goods and services is a: Purchaser Consumer Vendor Patron A vendor is an individual or business that supplies or sells goods and services to customers. 178 / 200178) The detective noticed a subtle change in the suspect's tone when he asked about her whereabouts on the night of the crime, which hinted at something more significant. What does 'subtle' most likely mean? Dramatic Notable Slight Obvious The word 'subtle' describes something that is delicate, understated, or slight enough to be difficult to immediately notice. 179 / 200179) Despite the complicated situation, she remained _____, calmly assessing her options before deciding. Fill in the blank with the appropriate choice: Composed Frantic Hysterical Erratic The context clue 'calmly assessing her options' indicates she was relaxed and in control of her emotions, making 'composed' the correct choice. 180 / 200180) Find out synonym for 'Elated': Nervous Confused Disappointed Overjoyed Elated means to be ecstatically happy or thrilled. Overjoyed is the most accurate synonym among the given options. 181 / 200181) Choose the sentence with the correct tense and sentence structure: He is going to the market yesterday. They were playing football when it started to rain. She will finish her homework before she went to bed. I had been waiting for the bus, and it arrives. Option 4 correctly uses the past continuous tense (were playing) to describe an ongoing action interrupted by the simple past tense (started). 182 / 200182) Choose the correct sentence. My father is talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fall from the bicycle. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I am falling from the bicycle. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fall from the bicycle. My father was talking to his friend on mobile phone when I fell from the bicycle. The past continuous (was talking) pairs correctly with the simple past (fell) to show an ongoing action interrupted by a sudden event in the past. 183 / 200183) Choose the correct sentence: She didn't know about the surprise party. She hasn't knew about the surprise party. She doesn't knew about the surprise party. She didn't knew about the surprise party. When using the auxiliary verb 'did' (didn't) in the past tense, the main verb must be in its base form (know, not knew). 184 / 200184) After she ______ the stairs, her heart almost gave out from exhaustion. Has climbed Had climbed Was climbing Have climbed The past perfect tense 'had climbed' is used to indicate that one action in the past occurred and concluded before another action (her heart almost giving out). 185 / 200185) Punctuate the given sentence correctly. The teacher asked did you complete your homework The teacher asked, "Did you complete your homework?" The teacher asked, did you complete your homework. The teacher asked, "did you complete your homework". The teacher asked, did you complete your homework? Direct speech must be enclosed in quotation marks, start with a capital letter, and include the proper terminal punctuation (a question mark) inside the quotes. 186 / 200186) Punctuate the following sentence correctly. Lets meet at Sarahs house after school Lets meet at Sarah's house after school. Let's meet, at Sarah's house after school. Let's meet at Sarah's house after school. Let's meet at Sarahs' house after school. 'Let's' requires an apostrophe for the contraction of 'let us', and 'Sarah's' requires an apostrophe to correctly indicate possession. 187 / 200187) Do you usually take a bus........ the market? To Of For By The preposition 'to' is appropriately used to indicate movement or direction toward a specific destination (the market). 188 / 200188) He has been working ______ this project for two weeks. At On By To The correct preposition to use when describing effort directed toward a specific task or assignment is 'on' (working on a project). 189 / 200189) Identify the sentence that contains an ERROR in word order, style, or vocabulary: The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog. She enjoys reading, writing, and to paint. They quickly adapted to the new environment. He has a talent for solving complex problems. Option 2 contains a faulty parallel structure. To be grammatically consistent, it should read: 'reading, writing, and painting'. 190 / 200190) Identify the ERROR in the sentence: The chef quickly prepared, delicious and it served a meal. Vocabulary Punctuation Word order Style The word order is completely scrambled and makes the sentence structurally incoherent. A correct order would be: 'The chef quickly prepared and served a delicious meal.' 191 / 200191) Order is the law of civilization as chaos is the law of the _____. The most appropriate word to be filled in is: City Wilderness Universe Metropolis This is an analogy. Order contrasts with chaos, just as civilization (a structured human society) contrasts with the wilderness (untamed nature). 192 / 200192) Blueprint is to architect as algorithm is to Engineer Programmer Designer Physician An architect uses a blueprint as a foundational plan to build a physical structure, just as a programmer uses an algorithm as a logical plan to build software. 193 / 200193) "Regular exercise has been shown to improve overall health by reducing the risk of chronic diseases, such as heart disease and diabetes. Additionally, exercise enhances mental well-being by reducing stress, anxiety, and depression. Despite these benefits, many people find it challenging to maintain a consistent exercise routine due to busy schedules and a lack of motivation." Based on the paragraph, which of the following statements can be inferred? Busy schedules and lack of motivation are barriers to regular exercise. People who exercise regularly never experience stress or anxiety Chronic diseases cannot be prevented by regular exercise. Exercise is only beneficial for physical health, not mental health. The text explicitly concludes that people find it challenging to exercise consistently 'due to busy schedules and a lack of motivation,' highlighting them as clear barriers. 194 / 200194) Which of the following words is a synonym for "meticulous"? Heedless Incautious Precise Abhorrent Meticulous describes someone who shows great attention to detail, making 'precise' the most accurate synonym. 195 / 200195) Find out the missing term in the sequence: 15, 14, 12, 9, ? 6 8 5 7 The sequence follows a pattern of increasing subtractions: 15 - 1 = 14; 14 - 2 = 12; 12 - 3 = 9. The next subtraction should be 4, so 9 - 4 = 5. 196 / 200196) All omnivores are herbivores. No herbivores are carnivores. Some carnivores are humans. Which of the following conclusions are TRUE? CONCLUSIONS: I. Some humans are carnivores. II. No carnivores are omnivores. III. Some omnivores are carnivores. III I and III I and II II and III Since some carnivores are humans, it logically follows that some humans are carnivores (Conclusion I is true). Since all omnivores are part of the herbivore group, and no herbivores are carnivores, no omnivores can be carnivores, meaning no carnivores are omnivores (Conclusion II is true). 197 / 200197) Read the following statements and identify the best cause-and-effect relation: 1. Sara's productivity at work has significantly decreased over the past month. 2. Sara has been experiencing frequent interruptions due to ongoing construction work near her office. Which of the following best describes the cause-and-effect relationship? Sara's decreased productivity is causing the construction work. The construction work is unrelated to Sara's productivity. Sara's productivity was already decreasing before the construction work began. The ongoing construction work is causing Sara's decreased productivity. The frequent interruptions from the nearby construction work act as the logical cause that leads to the direct effect of Sara's decreased productivity at work. 198 / 200198) A store offers a 10% discount on all items. After applying the discount, the price of an item is Rs. 450. What was the original price of the item? Rs. 490 Rs. 500 Rs. 505 Rs. 495 Let X be the original price. A 10% discount means the item is sold for 90% of its original price. 0.90 * X = 450. Solving for X gives X = 450 / 0.90 = 500. 199 / 200199) I went 10m to the East from my house, then turned north and walked another 15m, and then I turned west and covered 12m, and then turned south and covered 15m. How far am I from my house? 3 m 1 m 0 m 2 m The 15m movement North is completely canceled out by the 15m movement South. The horizontal movement is 10m East followed by 12m West, leaving you exactly 2 meters West of the starting point. 200 / 200200) If a > b, b > c, and d > a then? b > d b < d a < c c > d By combining the given inequalities, we can establish the complete sequence: d > a > b > c. From this, we can clearly see that d is greater than b, which is the exact same as saying b < d. Your score isThe average score is 0% 0% Restart quiz