Support and Movement MCQs with Answers
Which of the following best describes the primary need for support in living organisms?
To enhance sensory perception.
To resist gravity and external forces.
To facilitate reproduction.
To regulate internal temperature.
Explanation:Support in living organisms is necessary to uphold and sustain the body against gravity and other external forces.
What was a significant evolutionary development that increased the need for greater support in living organisms?
The transition from unicellular to multicellular forms.
The increase in size of organisms.
The development of photosynthesis.
The shift from asexual to sexual reproduction.
Explanation:As living organisms increased in size through evolution, the need for support became greater, especially when they colonized land.
What is the scientific study of bones and cartilage called?
Myology
Histology
Osteology
Neurology
Explanation:The study of bones and cartilage is called osteology.
An individual bone is composed of a variety of tissues. Which of the following is NOT typically found in an individual bone?
Bone tissue
Cartilage
Muscle tissue
Nerve tissue
Explanation:An individual bone is composed of bone tissue, cartilage, fibrous connective tissue, blood, and nerve tissue.
In a long bone, the broad terminal parts are called the:
Diaphysis
Periosteum
Epiphysis
Endosteum
Explanation:The terminal broad parts of a long bone are called the epiphysis.
Which part of a long bone is also known as the shaft and contains a central cavity filled with yellow bone marrow?
Epiphysis
Diaphysis
Periosteum
Spongy bone
Explanation:The middle part along the length of the bone is called the diaphysis or shaft, which contains a central cavity filled by yellow bone marrow.
The outer connective tissue layer around a bone is known as the:
Endosteum
Periosteum
Compact bone
Spongy bone
Explanation:The outer connective tissue around the bone is called periosteum.
Which of the following bone structures primarily contains red bone marrow in its spaces?
Compact bone
Periosteum
Spongy bone
Yellow bone marrow
Explanation:The red bone marrow is found in the spaces of spongy bone.
What is the primary function of osteoblasts?
To destroy bone tissue.
To maintain healthy bone tissue.
To synthesize and secrete unmineralized ground substance.
To regulate calcium release to blood.
Explanation:Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells that synthesize and secrete unmineralized ground substance.
What do osteoblasts become once they are surrounded by the bone matrix?
Osteoclasts
Chondrocytes
Osteocytes
Fibroblasts
Explanation:Once the osteoblasts are surrounded by matrix, they become osteocytes.
What is a key function of osteocytes in healthy bone tissue?
Breaking down bone for calcium release.
Synthesizing new bone matrix.
Secreting enzymes and influencing bone mineral content.
Forming cartilage.
Explanation:Osteocytes maintain healthy bone tissue by secreting enzymes and influencing bone mineral content. They also regulate calcium release from bone tissue to blood.
Which type of bone cell is responsible for bone resorption?
Osteoblasts
Osteocytes
Osteoclasts
Chondrocytes
Explanation:Osteoclasts are bone-destroying cells that perform bone resorption, breaking down bone and depositing calcium and phosphate into the blood.
The work of osteoclasts is important for which of the following processes?
Cartilage formation.
Muscle contraction.
Bone growth and repair.
Nerve tissue development.
Explanation:The work of osteoclasts is important to the growth and repair of bone.
How does cartilage compare to bone in terms of strength?
Cartilage is stronger than bone.
Cartilage is as strong as bone.
Cartilage is not as strong as bone.
Strength comparison varies greatly by type.
Explanation:Cartilage is not as strong as bone.
The flexibility of cartilage is primarily due to its matrix being:
Densely packed with minerals.
Composed of dead cells.
Containing collagenous and elastic fibers.
Highly vascularized.
Explanation:Cartilage is more flexible than bone because its matrix is gel-like and contains many collagenous and elastic fibers.
What is the dense layer of collagen fibers covering the cartilage matrix called?
Periosteum
Endosteum
Perichondrium
Lacunae
Explanation:The cartilage matrix is covered by a dense layer of collagen fibers called perichondrium.
The living cells of cartilage are known as:
Osteocytes
Osteoblasts
Chondrocytes
Fibrocytes
Explanation:The living cells of cartilage are called chondrocytes.
How do chondrocytes primarily receive their nutrient supply?
Through direct blood vessels.
By diffusion.
Via nerve tissue.
Through direct contact with bone.
Explanation:Cartilage does not contain blood vessels, and the chondrocytes are supplied by diffusion.
Why does cartilage heal very slowly?
It lacks nerve tissue.
It has a very rigid matrix.
It lacks blood vessels.
It is constantly under pressure.
Explanation:Cartilage heals very slowly because it does not contain blood vessels.
Which type of cartilage is found at the ends of long bones, in the nose, larynx, and trachea?
Fibrocartilage
Elastic cartilage
Hyaline cartilage
Reticular cartilage
Explanation:Hyaline cartilage is found at the ends of long bones and in the nose, at the larynx and trachea.
Where is fibrocartilage typically found in the adult human body?
Ear flaps and epiglottis.
Ends of long bones.
Disks between vertebrae.
Nose and trachea.
Explanation:Fibrocartilage is found in the disks located between the vertebrae and the cartilage of the knee.
In comparison to cartilage, collagen fibers in bone are:
Loosely packed.
Densely packed.
Absent.
Randomly arranged.
Explanation:collagen in bone is densely packed, while in cartilage it is loosely packed.
Which of the following cell types is characteristic of cartilage but not bone?
Osteoblasts
Osteocytes
Osteoclasts
Chondrocytes
Explanation:chondrocytes are the cell types found in cartilage, while bone has osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts.
What is a key difference regarding blood vessels between bone and cartilage?
Both bone and cartilage have abundant blood vessels.
Bone has blood vessels, but cartilage does not.
Cartilage has blood vessels, but bone does not.
Neither bone nor cartilage has blood vessels.
Explanation:blood vessels are present in bone but absent in cartilage.
Which substance is deposited in bone but not in cartilage?
Collagen
Water
Minerals.
Protein fibers.
Explanation:bone deposits minerals such as calcium, carbonates, and phosphates, while there is no deposition of minerals in cartilage.
What is the external covering of bone called, which differs from that of cartilage?
Perichondrium
Endosteum
Periosteum
Joint capsule
Explanation:Table 16.1 indicates that bone is covered by periosteum, while cartilage is covered by perichondrium.
How many bones are typically found in the human skeletal system?
Explanation:The human skeletal system consists of 206 bones.
The human skeletal system is primarily divided into two main divisions. What are they?
Upper and Lower skeleton.
Anterior and Posterior skeleton.
Axial and Appendicular skeleton.
Cranial and Post-cranial skeleton.
Explanation:The human skeletal system is primarily divided into axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton.
Which of the following is included in the axial skeleton?
Pelvic girdle
Forelimbs
Rib cage
Hind limbs
Explanation:Axial skeleton includes skeletal parts along the central axis of the body, such as the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage.
How many bones are present in the human head?
Explanation:The head contains 29 bones.
How many cranial bones form the cranium?
Explanation:There are 8 cranial bones that form the cranium (brain box).
Which of the following are paired cranial bones?
Frontal and Occipital
Ethmoid and Sphenoid
Parietal and Temporal
Vomer and Mandible
Explanation:Out of the 8 cranial bones, two are paired: parietal bones (left and right) and temporal bones (left and right).
Which of the following is an unpaired cranial bone?
Parietal
Temporal
Frontal
Lacrimal
Explanation:Four cranial bones are unpaired: frontal bone, occipital bone, ethmoid bone, and sphenoid bone.
How many facial bones are there in the human skull?
Explanation:Facial bones are fourteen in number.
Which of the following is a paired facial bone?
Mandible
Vomer
Maxilla
Hyoid
Explanation:The paired bones of the face include lacrimal, zygomatic, nasal bones, inferior nasal concha, maxilla, and palatine.
Which of the following is an unpaired facial bone?
Zygomatic
Nasal
Mandible
Palatine
Explanation:The unpaired bones of the face are mandible and vomer.
The three pairs of middle ear ossicles are:
Femur, Tibia, Fibula
Humerus, Ulna, Radius
Malleus, Incus, Stapes
Carpals, Metacarpals, Phalanges
Explanation:Three pairs of middle ear ossicles are malleus, incus, and stapes.
What is a unique characteristic of the hyoid bone?
It articulates with the sternum.
It forms part of the cranium.
It does not articulate with any other head bone.
It is a paired bone.
Explanation:The hyoid bone is a small single bone that lies at the base of the skull below the tongue and does not articulate with any other bone of the head.
How many vertebrae typically make up the human vertebral column?
Explanation:The vertebral column in human beings consists of thirty-three vertebrae.
How many cervical vertebrae are there in the human vertebral column?
Explanation:There are 7 cervical vertebrae.
Which of the following is the first cervical vertebra?
Explanation:The atlas is the first cervical vertebra.
Which characteristic is typical of thoracic vertebrae?
They are found in the neck region.
They are rib-carrying vertebrae.
They are present in the abdominal region.
They are fused to form the sacrum.
Explanation:Thoracic vertebrae are rib-carrying vertebrae having large spinous processes and are found in the chest region.
How many lumbar vertebrae are typically found in the human vertebral column?
Explanation:There are 5 lumbar vertebrae.
The sacrum is formed by the fusion of how many vertebrae?
Explanation:Sacral vertebrae are five fused vertebrae forming the sacrum.
Which bones articulate with the sacrum to form the back of the pelvis?
Ischial bones
Pubic bones
Iliac bones
Femur bones
Explanation:The sacrum articulates with the iliac bones of the hip bone to form the back of the pelvis.
How many coccygeal vertebrae are fused in adults to form the coccyx?
Explanation:Coccygeal vertebrae or coccyx are four vertebrae fused in adults.
How many pairs of ribs make up the rib cage?
Explanation:The rib cage consists of twelve pairs of ribs.
Which ribs attach directly to the sternum?
Floating ribs
False ribs
True ribs
Both false and floating ribs
Explanation:The seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum are called true ribs.
Which rib pairs are classified as false ribs?
1st-7th pairs
8th, 9th, and 10th pairs
11th and 12th pairs
All ribs that attach indirectly to the sternum
Explanation:The 8th, 9th, and 10th pairs are called false ribs, as these three pairs of ribs are attached to the sternum by means of common costal cartilage.
Which rib pairs are known as floating ribs?
1st-7th pairs
8th, 9th, and 10th pairs
11th and 12th pairs
Only the 12th pair
Explanation:The 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are known as floating ribs because they do not attach to the sternum.
The appendicular skeleton includes skeletal parts present in:
The skull and vertebral column.
The rib cage and sternum.
Appendages (arms and legs).
The axial skeleton.
Explanation:The appendicular skeleton includes those skeletal parts which are present in appendages (arms and legs).
The pectoral girdle consists of a pair of clavicles and a pair of:
Humerus
Scapula
Pelvic bones
Sternum
Explanation:Pectoral girdle consists of a pair of clavicles and a pair of scapula.
Which of the following bones is NOT part of the upper limb (forelimb)?
Explanation:The upper limb or forelimb consists of humerus, ulna, radius, carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges. Femur is a lower limb bone.
The spherical head of the humerus fits into which cavity?
Acetabulum
Glenoid cavity
Pubic symphysis
Lacunae
Explanation:The humerus is a long bone, the end of which has a spherical head, which fits into the glenoid cavity.
The radius bone is located on which side of the forearm?
Inner side
Outer side
Posterior side
Superior side
Explanation:The radius is a long, outer bone of the forearm (on the thumb side).
How many short bones make up the carpals, forming the wrist?
Explanation:Carpals consist of two rows of eight short bones forming the wrist.
Which bones make up the palm of the hand?
Carpals
Metacarpals
Phalanges
Tarsals
Explanation:Metacarpals consist of five bones making up the palm of the hand.
How many phalanges does the human thumb possess, compared to other fingers?
Three, same as other fingers.
Two, while other fingers have three.
Four, more than other fingers.
One, fewer than other fingers.
Explanation:Each finger possesses three phalanges except the thumb which comprises two phalanges.
The pelvic girdle is made up of three units that form the coxa. These units are the ileum, ischium, and:
Explanation:The pelvic girdle is made up of three units: the ileum, ischium, and pubis, which form the coxa.
Which of the following bones is part of the hind limb?
Ulna
Radius
Patella
Clavicle
Explanation:The lower limb or hind limb consists of femur, patella, tibia, fibula, tarsal, metatarsal, and phalanges.
What is the definition of a joint or articulation?
A place where muscles attach to bones.
A place where two bones or bone and cartilage come together.
The rigid connection between two bones.
The fluid-filled sac in a synovial capsule.
Explanation:A joint or articulation is a place where two bones or bone and cartilage come together.
What is the scientific study of the structure and function of joints called?
Osteology
Myology
Arthrology
Neurology
Explanation:The scientific study of the structure and function of joints is called arthrology.
Which characteristic defines fibrous joints?
They are freely moveable.
They are united by cartilage.
Bones are connected with no joint cavity.
They contain synovial fluid.
Explanation:In fibrous joints, adjacent bones are directly connected by fibrous connective tissue, and there is no joint cavity between them.
An example of a fibrous joint is found in the:
Knee
Pubic symphysis
Skull sutures
Elbow
Explanation:Fibrous joints are found between most bones of the skull, called sutures.
Which statement is true regarding cartilaginous joints?
They are freely moveable.
They are united by cartilage and lack a joint cavity.
They always have a wide gap between bones.
They are covered by a synovial membrane.
Explanation:At a cartilaginous joint, the adjacent bones are united by cartilage, and these types of joints lack a joint cavity.
What type of movement do cartilaginous joints generally allow?
Freely moveable.
No movement.
Little movement.
Full rotation.
Explanation:Cartilaginous joints allow little movement.
Which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous joint?
The shoulder joint.
The intervertebral disc.
The knee joint.
The ankle joint.
Explanation:Examples of cartilaginous joints include costal cartilages that attach ribs to the sternum, and the pubic symphysis and intervertebral disc.
What type of movement is characteristic of synovial joints?
Immoveable
Slightly moveable
Freely moveable
Limited to one plane
Explanation:Synovial joints are freely moveable joints.
What is secreted by the inner lining of the synovial membrane within a synovial joint capsule?
Collagen
Fibrous tissue
Synovial fluid
Hyaline cartilage
Explanation:The inner lining of the synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid.
Which of the following is an example of a synovial joint?
Skull suture
Pubic symphysis
Hinge joint
Rib attachment to sternum
Explanation:Examples of synovial joints include hinge joint, pivot joint, ball-and-socket joint, and gliding joint.
What is the medical term for joint replacement?
Osteology
Arthroscopy
Arthroplasty
Myectomy
Explanation:Joint replacement is called arthroplasty.
Artificial joints are commonly composed of metal in combination with modern:
Rubber
Ceramics
Plastics
Glass
Explanation:Artificial joints are usually composed of metal (e.g., stainless steel, titanium alloys) in combination with modern plastics (e.g., high-density polythene, silastic or elastomer).
How do the skeleton and muscular systems together maintain bipedal posture?
The skeleton alone provides all necessary support.
Muscular systems work independently of the skeleton.
Muscular systems works along with the skeleton.
Bipedal posture is maintained only through passive balance.
Explanation:The skeleton and muscular systems maintain bipedal posture, with certain muscles acting as posture muscles working in opposition to gravity, and the pelvis structure also permitting upright posture.
Each intervertebral disc consists of an inner semifluid part called the nucleus pulposus and an outer ring of fibrocartilage called the:
Periosteum
Annulus fibrosus
Synovial membrane
Medullary cavity
Explanation:Each intervertebral disc consists of nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus, which is the strong outer ring of fibrocartilage.
What is the primary function of the nucleus pulposus in an intervertebral disc?
To firmly hold vertebrae together.
To provide elasticity and compressibility.
To secrete synovial fluid.
To prevent bone-to-bone contact.
Explanation:The nucleus pulposus is an inner semifluid which acts as a rubber ball to give a disc its elasticity and compressibility.
The strong outer ring of fibrocartilage that holds together successive vertebrae is the:
Nucleus pulposus
Joint capsule
Annulus fibrosus
Ligament
Explanation:Annulus fibrosus is the strong outer ring of fibrocartilage, which holds together successive vertebrae.
What is spondylosis characterized by?
Inflammation of joints.
Reduced bone mass.
Immobility and fusion of a vertebral joint.
Pain in the leg due to nerve pressure.
Explanation:Spondylosis is the immobility and fusion of a vertebral joint.
Sciatica refers to symptoms such as pain, weakness, numbness, or tingling in the leg. What is its direct cause?
Inflammation of the knee joint.
Injury to or pressure on the sciatic nerve.
Metabolic disorder affecting joints.
Degeneration of articular cartilage.
Explanation:Sciatica is caused by injury to or pressure on the sciatic nerve.
Which of the following is a common cause of sciatica?
Gouty arthritis
Osteoporosis
Slipped disc
Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Common causes of sciatica include a slipped disc, pelvic injury or fracture, and tumors.
What are typical symptoms of arthritis?
Increased bone density.
Pain after walking.
Improved joint flexibility.
Numbness in limbs.
Explanation:The typical symptoms of arthritis include pain after walking (which may later occur even at rest), creaking sounds in the joint, and difficulty in getting up from a chair.
Which type of arthritis is a progressive disease where articular cartilages gradually soften and disintegrate?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Gouty arthritis
Osteoarthritis
Septic arthritis
Explanation:Osteoarthritis is a progressive disease in which the articular cartilages gradually soften and disintegrate.
Osteoarthritis commonly affects which joints?
Skull sutures and fibrous joints.
Knee, hip, and intervertebral joints.
Elbow and shoulder joints only.
Joints of the fingers and toes only.
Explanation:Osteoarthritis affects the knee, hip, and intervertebral joints.
What is the underlying cause of rheumatoid arthritis?
Nutritional deficiency.
Excessive uric acid deposition.
An autoimmune disorder.
Physical trauma to the joint.
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is the result of an autoimmune disorder in which the synovial membrane becomes inflamed due to a faulty immune system.
Gouty arthritis results from a metabolic disorder leading to the deposition of which crystals in the joints?
Calcium phosphate crystals.
Sodium urate crystals.
Oxalate crystals.
Collagen crystals.
Explanation:Gouty arthritis results from a metabolic disorder in which sodium urate crystals are deposited in the joints.
Which joint is most commonly affected by gouty arthritis?
Knee joint
Hip joint
Big toe joint
Elbow joint
Explanation:The most common joint affected by gouty arthritis is the joint of the big toe.
Osteoporosis is characterized by:
Increased bone mass and decreased fracture risk.
Reduced bone mass and an increased risk of fracture.
Inflammation of joints.
Softening of articular cartilages.
Explanation:Osteoporosis is a common disease characterized by reduced bone mass and an increased risk of fracture.
Why is adequate calcium intake in teenage years and twenties a preventive action against osteoporosis?
It prevents joint inflammation.
It promotes cartilage regeneration.
It increases peak bone mass.
It directly reduces osteoclast activity.
Explanation:Adequate calcium intake in teenage years and twenties increases peak bone mass, offering greater tolerance for bone loss later in life, because a greater bone mass before the onset of osteoporosis provides more resilience.
What is the medical term for a broken bone?
Sprain
Dislocation
Fracture
Contusion
Explanation:A fracture is the medical term for a broken bone.
Bone fractures occur when the physical force exerted on the bone is:
Less than the bone's strength.
Equal to the bone's strength.
Stronger than the bone itself.
Applied slowly over time.
Explanation:Fractures occur when the physical force exerted on the bone is stronger than the bone itself.
In which type of fracture does the skin remain intact, without any penetration by the bone ends?
Compound fracture
Complicated fracture
Closed fracture
Stress fracture
Explanation:Simple fracture or closed fractures are those in which the skin is intact.
What characterizes a compound fracture?
The skin is intact over the fracture site.
The bone ends penetrate the skin and form a wound.
It damages adjacent internal organs.
It is a minor crack in the bone.
Explanation:If the bone ends penetrate the skin and form a wound, it is called a compound fracture or open fracture.
When a fracture damages adjacent internal organs, it is classified as a:
Simple fracture
Compound fracture
Complicated fracture
Hairline fracture
Explanation:When a fracture damages the adjacent organs, it is called a complicated fracture.
What is the very first step in the repair process of a simple bone fracture?
Bony callus formation.
Bone remodeling.
Haematoma.
Fibrocartilaginous callus formation.
Explanation:The repair process of a simple fracture takes place in four major steps, starting with haematoma or clot formation.
During haematoma formation at a fracture site, what happens to the blood vessels in the bone and surrounding tissues?
They constrict to limit blood flow.
They are torn, leading to haemorrhage.
They become stronger and reinforce the bone.
They form new connections immediately.
Explanation:When a bone breaks, blood vessels in the bone, and perhaps in surrounding tissues, are torn and haemorrhage.
Following the formation of a haematoma at a fracture site, what happens to the bone cells deprived of nutrition?
They rapidly multiply.
They become active in repair immediately.
They die.
They convert into blood cells.
Explanation:Soon after haematoma formation, bone cells deprived of nutrition die.
After a fracture and haematoma formation, the tissue at the fracture site typically becomes:
Stronger and rigid.
Swollen and inflamed.
Numb and discolored.
Warm and dry.
Explanation:As a result of the haematoma and dying bone cells, the tissue at the site becomes swollen, painful, and inflamed.
A mass of clotted blood that forms at a fracture site is specifically called a:
Callus
Plaque
Haematoma
Cyst
Explanation:As a result of torn blood vessels and haemorrhage, a haematoma, a mass of clotted blood, forms at the fracture site.
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